Unit-I
1. What is the first step in the software
development lifecycle?
a. System Design
b. Coding
c. System Testing
d. Preliminary Investigation and Analysis
Answer: Option (d)
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2. What does the study of an existing system refer
to?
a. Details of DFD
b. Feasibility Study
c. System Analysis
d. System Planning
Answer: Option (c)
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3. Which of the following is involved in the system
planning and designing phase of the Software
Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?
a. Sizing
b. Parallel run
c. Specification freeze
d. All of the above
Answer: Option (d)
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4. What does RAD stand for?
a. Rapid Application Document
b. Rapid Application Development
c. Relative Application Development
d. None of the above
Answer: Option (b)
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5. Which of the following prototypes does not
associated with Prototyping Model?
a. Domain Prototype
b. Vertical Prototype
c. Horizontal Prototype
d. Diagonal Prototype
Answer: Option (d)
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6. The major drawback of RAD model is _
a. It requires highly skilled
developers/designers.
b. It necessitates customer feedbacks.
c. It increases the component reusability.
a. Both (a) & (c)
Answer: Option (d)
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7. Which of the following does not relate to
Evolutionary Process Model?
a. Incremental Model
b. Concurrent Development Model
c. WINWIN Spiral Model
d. All of the above
Answer: Option (d)
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8. What is the major drawback of the Spiral
Model?
a.Higher amount of risk analysis
b. Doesn't work well for smaller projects
c.Additional functionalities are added later on
d. Strong approval and documentation control
Answer: Option (b)
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9. Model selection is based on _______
a.Requirements
b. Development team & users
c.Project type & associated risk
d. All of the above
Answer: Option (d)
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10. Which of the following option is correct?
a.The prototyping model facilitates the
reusability of components.
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b. RAD Model facilitates reusability of
components
c.Both RAD & Prototyping Model facilitates
reusability of components
d. None
Answer: Option (c)
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11. Which of the following models doesn't
necessitate defining requirements at the earliest
in the lifecycle?
a. RAD & Waterfall
b. Prototyping & Waterfall
c. Spiral & Prototyping
d. Spiral & RAD
Answer: Option (c)
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12. When the user participation isn't involved,
which of the following models will not result in
the desired output?
a. Prototyping & Waterfall
b. Prototyping & RAD
c. Prototyping & Spiral
d. RAD & Spiral
Answer: Option (b)
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13. Which of the following model will be preferred
by a company that is planning to deploy an
advanced version of the existing software in the
market?
a. Spiral
b. Iterative Enhancement
c. RAD
d. Both (b) and (c)
Answer: Option (D)
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14. Software is considered to be collection
of
a. programming code
b. associated libraries
c. documentations
d. All of the above
Answer: Option (d)
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15. The process of developing a software product
using software engineering principles and
methods is referred to as_______.
a. Software Engineering
b. software Evolution
c. System Models
d. Software Models
Answer: Option (b)
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16. Which of the following is the Characteristics of
good software?
a. Transitional
b. Operational
c. Maintenance
d. All of the above
Answer: Option (d)
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17. Where there is a need of Software Engineering?
a. For Large Software
b. To reduce Cost
c. Software Quality Management
d. All of the above
Answer: Option (d)
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18. The reason for software bugs and failures is due
to____________.
a. Software Developers
b. Software companies
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
Answer: Option (d)
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19. Efficiency in a software product does not include
____
a. Licensing
b. processing time
c. responsiveness
d. memory utilization
Answer: Option (a)
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20. What are attributes of good software?
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a. Software functionality
b. Software development
c. Software maintainability
d. Both A and C
Answer: Option (d)
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21. Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming
exercises of ____LOC (Line of Code).
a. 100-200
b. 200-400
c. 400-1000
d. above 1000
Answer: Option (a)
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22. RAD stands for
a. Relative Application Development
b. Rapid Application Development
c. Rapid Application Document
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (b)
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23. Which one of the following models is not
suitable for accommodating any change?
a. Build & Fix Model
b. Prototyping Model
c. RAD Model
d. Waterfall Model
Answer: Option (d)
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24. Which is not one of the types of prototype of
Prototyping Model?
a. Horizontal Prototype
b. Vertical Prototype
c. Diagonal Prototype
Answer: Option (c)
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25. Which one of the following is not a phase of
Prototyping Model?
a. Quick Design
b. Coding
c. Prototype Refinement
d. Engineer Product
e. Domain Prototype.
Answer: Option (b)
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26. Which of the following statements regarding
Build & Fix Model is wrong?
a. No room for structured design
b. Code soon becomes unfixable &
unchangeable
c. Maintenance is practically not possible
d. It scales up well to large projects
Answer: Option (d)
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27. RAD Model has
a. 2 phases
b. 3 phase
c. 5 phases
d. 6 phases
Answer: Option (c)
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28. Which model can be selected if user is involved
in all the phases of SDLC?
a. Waterfall Model
b. Prototyping Model
c. RAD Model
d. both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
Answer: Option (c)
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29. Which of the following are valid step in SDLC
framework?
a. Requirement Gathering
b. System Analysis
c. Software Design
d. All of the above
Answer: Option (d)
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30. Which of the following is the first step in SDLC
framework?
a. Feasibility Study
b. Requirement Gathering
c. Communication
d. System Analysis
Answer: Option (c)
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31. Which of the following is not correct model in
Software Development Paradigm?
a. Waterfall Model
b. P model
c. Spiral Model
d. V model
Answer: Option (b)
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32. Waterfall model is not suitable for:
a. Small projects
b. Complex projects
c. Accommodating changes
d. Maintenance Projects
Answer: Option (c)
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33. Which one of the following is a functional
requirement?
a. Maintainability
b. Portability
c. Business needs
d. Reliability
Answer: Option (c)
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34. What is the major drawback of using RAD
Model?
a. Highly specialized & skilled
developers/designers are required
b. Increases reusability of components
c. Encourages customer/client feedback
d. Increases reusability of components,
highly specialized & skilled
developers/designers are required
Answer: Option (d)
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35. The process to gather the software requirements
from client, analyze and document them is
known as _____..
a. Feasibility Study
b. Requirement Gathering
c. Requirement Engineering
d. System Requirements Specification
Answer: Option (c)
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36. The goal of requirement engineering is to
develop and maintain sophisticated and
descriptive _________________ document.
a. Feasibility Study
b. Requirement Gathering
c. Software Requirement Validation
d. System Requirements Specification
Answer: Option (d)
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37. It is the process in which developers discuss with
the client and end users and know their
expectations from the software.
a. Requirements gathering
b. Organizing Requirements
c. Negotiation & discussion
d. Documentation
Answer: Option (a)
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38. Which of the following is correct software
metrics?
a. Complexity Metrics
b. Quality Metrics
c. Process Metrics
d. All of the above
Answer: Option (d)
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39. Why is Requirements Elicitation a difficult task?
a. Problem of scope
b. Problem of understanding
c. Problem of volatility
d. All of the above
Answer: Option (d)
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40. The fundamental notions of software
engineering does not account for?
A. Software Security
B. Software reuse
C.Software processes
D. Software Validation
Answer: Option (d)
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41. Which of these software engineering activities
are not a part of software processes?
a. Software development
b. Software dependence
c. Software validation
d. Software specification
Answer: Option (b)
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42. The spiral model was originally proposed by..
a. Barry Boehm
b. Pressman
c. Royce
d. Pressman
Answer: Option (a)
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43. Usability can be measured in terms of:
a. Time required to become moderately
efficient in system usage
b. Net increase in productivity
c. Intellectual skill to learn the system
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
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44. What are attributes of good software?
a. Software functionality
b. Software maintainability
c. Software development
d. Both Software functionality &
maintainability
Answer: Option (d)
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45. Which of the following is also known as
Verification and Validation Model?
a. V-Model
b. Waterfall Model
c. Prototype Model
d. Evolutionary Model
Answer: Option (a)
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46. Software deteriorates rather than wears out
because
a. Software suffers from exposure to hostile
environments
b. Defects are more likely to arise after
software has been used often
c. Multiple change requests introduce
errors in component interactions
d. Software spare parts become harder to
order
Answer: Option (c)
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47. Which of the items listed below is not one of
the software engineering layers?
a. Process
b. Manufacturing
c. Methods
d. Tools
Answer: Option (b)
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48. Which of these are the 5 generic software
engineering framework activities?
a. Communication, planning, modeling,
construction, deployment
b. Communication, risk management,
measurement, production, reviewing
c. Analysis, designing, programming,
debugging, maintenance
d. Analysis, planning, designing,
programming, testing
Answer: Option (c)
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49. The incremental model of software
development is
a. A reasonable approach when requirements
are well defined
b. A good approach when working core
product is required.
c. The best approach to use when large
development team
d. A revolutionary model that is not
commercially used.
Answer: Option (b)
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50. The spiral model of software development
a. Ends with the software delivery of the
product
b. Is more chaotic than incremental model
c. Calculate risk at each phase
d. All the three
Answer: Option (c)
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51. The prototyping software model is
a. A reasonable approach when requirements
are well defined
b. Useful only when customer can not define
requirement clearly
c. best for large development team
d. A risky model for producing meaningful
product
Answer: Option (b)
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52. Which question no longer concerns the modern
software engineer?
a. Why does computer hardware cost so
much?
b. Why does software take a long time to
finish?
c. Why does it cost so much to develop a
piece of software?
d. Why can’t software errors be removed
from products prior to delivery?
Answer: Option (a)
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53. Software is a product and can be manufactured
using the same technologies used for other
engineering artifacts
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (b)
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54. Software deteriorates rather than wears out
because
a. Software suffers from exposure to hostile
environments
b. Defects are more likely to arise after
software has been used often
c. Multiple change requests introduce
errors in component interactions
d. Software spare parts become harder to
order
Answer: Option (c)
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55. WebApps are a mixture of print publishing and
software development, making their
development outside the realm of software
engineering practice.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (b)
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5. There are no real differences between creating
WebApps and MobileApps
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (b)
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56. In its simplest form an external computing
device may access cloud data services using a
web browser.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (a)
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57. Product line software developments depends the
reuse of existing software components to
provide software engineering leverage.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (a)
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58. Which of the items listed below is not one of
the software engineering layers?
a. Process
b. Manufacturing
c. Methods
Tools Answer: Option (b)
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59. Which of these are the 5 generic software
engineering framework activities?
a. communication, planning, modeling,
construction, deployment
b. communication, risk management,
measurement, production, reviewing
c. analysis, designing, programming,
debugging, maintenance
d. analysis, planning, designing,
programming, testing
Answer: Option (a)
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60. Most software continues to be custom built
because
a. Component reuse is common in the
software world.
b. Reusable components are too expensive to
use.
c. Software is easier to build without using
someone else's components.
d. Off-the-shelf software components are
unavailable in many application
domains.
Answer: Option (d)
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61. The nature of software applications can be
characterized by their information
a. Complexity
b. Content
c. Determinacy
d. both b and c
Answer: Option (d)
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62. Process models are described as agile because
they
a. Eliminate the need for cumbersome
documentation
b. Emphasize maneuverability and
adaptability
c. Do not waste development time on
planning activities
d. Make extensive use of prototype creation
Answer: Option (b)
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63. Which of these terms are level names in the
Capability Maturity Model?
a. Performed
b. Repeated
c. Optimized
d. both a and c
Answer: Option (d)
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64. The best software process model is one that has
been created by the people who will actually be
doing the work.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (a)
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65. Which of the following are recognized process
flow types?
a. Concurrent process flow
b. Iterative process flow
c. Linear process flow
d. both b and c
Answer: Option (d)
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66. Which of these are standards for assessing
software processes?
a. SPICE
b. ISO 9000
c. ISO 9001
d. both a and c
Answer: Option (d)
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67. The rapid application development model is
a. Another name for component-based
development
b. A useful approach when a customer
cannot define requirements clearly.
c. A high speed adaptation of the linear
sequential model.
d. All of the above.
Answer: Option (c)
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68. In the Unified Process model requirements are
determined iteratively and may span more than
one phase of the process.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (a)
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69. The waterfall model of software development is
a. A reasonable approach when
requirements are well defined.
b. A good approach when a working
program is required quickly.
c. The best approach to use for projects with
large development teams
d. An old fashioned model that is rarely used
any more
Answer: Option (a)
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70. The incremental model of software
development is
a. A reasonable approach when requirements
are well defined.
b. A good approach when a working core
product is required quickly.
c. The best approach to use for projects with
large development teams
d. A revolutionary model that is not used for
commercial products.
Answer: Option (b)
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71. Evolutionary software process models
a. Are iterative in nature
b. Can easily accommodate product
requirements changes
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c. Do not generally produce throwaway
systems
d. All of the above.
Answer: Option (d)
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72. The prototyping model of software
development is
a. A reasonable approach when requirements
are well defined.
b. A useful approach when a customer
cannot define requirements clearly.
c. The best approach to use for projects with
large development teams.
d. A risky model that rarely produces a
meaningful product.
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Answer: Option (b)
73. The spiral model of software development
a. Ends with the delivery of the software
product.
b. Is more chaotic than the incremental
model.
c. Includes project risks evaluation during
each iteration
d. All of the above
Answer: Option (c)
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74. The concurrent development model is
a. Another name for concurrent engineering.
b. Defines events that trigger engineering
activity state transitions.
c. Only used for development of parallel or
distributed systems.
d. Both a and b
Answer: Option (c)
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75. The component-based development model is
a. Only appropriate for computer hardware
design
b. Not able to support the development of
reusable components.
c. Dependent on object technologies for
support.
d. Not cost effective by known quantifiable
software metrics
Answer: Option (c)
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76. The formal methods model of software
development makes use of mathematical
methods to
a. Define the specification for computerbased systems
b. Develop defect free computer-based
systems.
c. Verify the correctness of computer-based
systems.
d. All of the above.
Answer: Option (d)
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77. Which of these is not one of the phase names
defined by the Unified Process model for
software development?
a. Inception phase
b. Elaboration phase
c. Construction phase
d. Validation phase
Answer: Option (d)
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78. Which of these is not a characteristic of
Personal Software Process?
a. Emphasizes personal measurement of
work product.
b. Practitioner requires careful
supervision by the project manager.
c. Individual practitioner is responsible for
estimating and scheduling.
d. Practitioner is empowered to control
quality of software work products.
Answer: Option (b)
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79. Which of these are objectives of Team Software
Process?
a. Accelerate software process improvement
b. Allow better time management by highly
trained professionals
c. Build self-directed software teams
d. Both b and c
Answer: Option (d)
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80. SDLC stands for
a. Software Development Life Cycle
b. System Development Life cycle
c. Software Design Life Cycle
d. System Design Life Cycle
Answer: Option (a)
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81. Which model can be selected if user is involved
in all the phases of SDLC?
a. Waterfall Model
b. Prototyping Model
c. RAD Model
d. both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
Answer: Option (c)
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Unit- II
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1. The process to gather the software requirements
from client, analyze and document them is
known as ______
a. Feasibility Study
b. Requirement Gathering
c. Requirement Engineering
d. System Requirements Specification
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
2. The goal of requirement engineering is to
develop and maintain sophisticated and
descriptive _______________document.
a. Feasibility Study
b. Requirement Gathering
c. Software Requirement Validation
d. System Requirements Specification
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
3. It is the process in which developers discuss
with the client and end users and know their
expectations from the software.
a. Requirements gathering
b. Organizing Requirements
c. Negotiation & discussion
d. D. Documentation
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
4. Which of the following is correct software
metrics?
a. Complexity Metrics
b. Quality Metrics
c. Process Metrics
d. All of the above
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
5. What are the types of requirement in Quality
Function Deployment (QFD)?
a. Known, Unknown, Undreamed
b. User, Developer
c. Functional, Non-Functional
d. Normal, Expected, Exciting
Answer: Option (d)
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6. Why is Requirements Elicitation a difficult
task?
a. Problem of scope
b. Problem of understanding
c. Problem of volatility
d. All of the above
Answer: Option (d)
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7. How many phases are there in Brainstorming?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Answer: Option (b)
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8. Which type of DFD concentrates on the system
process and flow of data in the system?
a. Physical DFD
b. Logical DFD
c. Flowchart DFD
d. System DFD
Answer: Option (b)
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9. How many levels of DFD is?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Answer: Option (b)
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10. Which of the following is not a component in
DFD?
a. Entities
b. Attributes
c. Process
d. Data Flow
Answer: Option (b)
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11. What is level 2 in DFD means?
a. Highest abstraction level DFD is known as
Level 2.
b. Level 2 DFD depicts basic modules in the
system and flow of data among various
modules.
c. Level 2 DFD shows how data flows
inside the modules mentioned in Level 1.
d. All of the above
Answer: Option (c)
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12. The context diagram is also known as __.
a. Level-0 DFD
b. Level-1 DFD
c. Level-2 DFD
d. All of the above
Answer: Option (a)
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13. A directed arc or line in DFD represents
a. Data Store
b. Data Process
c. Data Flow
d. All of the above
Answer: Option (c)
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14. What are the types of requirements?
a. Availability
b. Reliability
c. Usability
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
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15. Select the developer-specific requirement?
a. Portability
b. Maintainability
c. Availability
d. Both Portability and Maintainability
Answer: Option (d)
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16. Which one of the following is not a step of
requirement engineering?
a. Elicitation
b. Design
c. Analysis
d. documentation
Answer: Option (b)
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17. FAST stands for
a. Functional Application Specification
Technique
b. Fast Application Specification Technique
c. Facilitated Application Specification
Technique
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (c)
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18. The user system requirements are the parts of
which document?
a. SDD
b. SRS
c. DDD
d. SRD
` Answer: Option (b)
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19. Which is one of the most important
stakeholders from the following?
a. Entry level personnel
b. Middle level stakeholder
c. Managers
d. Users of the software
Answer: Option (D)
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20. Choose an internal software quality from given
below:
a. Scalability
b. Usability
c. Reusability
d. reliability
Answer: Option (c)
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21. RUP stands for______created by a division of
_______
a. Rational Unified Program, IBM
b. Rational Unified Process, Infosys
c. Rational Unified Process, Microsoft
d. Rational Unified Process, IBM
Answer: Option (d)
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22. Which phase of the RUP is used to establish a
business case for the system?
a. Transition
b. Elaboration
c. Construction
d. Inception
Answer: Option (d)
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23. The longer a fault exists in software
a. the more tedious its removal becomes
b. the more costly it is to detect and correct
c. the less likely it is to be properly
corrected
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
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24. Which one of the following is not a software
process quality?
a. Productivity
b. Portability
c. Timeliness
d. Visibility
Answer: Option (b)
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25. _____________&_____________ are two
kinds of software products.
a. CAD, CAM
b. Firmware, Embedded
c. Generic, Customized
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (C)
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26. Purpose of process is to deliver software
a. in time
b. with acceptable quality
c. that is cost efficient
d. both in time & with acceptable quality
Answer: Option (d)
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27. Which one of the following is not an Umbrella
Activity that complements the five process
framework activities and help team manage and
control progress, quality, change, and risk.
a. Reusability management
b. Risk management
c. Measurement
d. User Reviews
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
28. Which one of the following is a functional
requirement?
a. Maintainability
b. Portability
c. Robustness
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
29. Which one of the following is a requirement
that fits in a developer’s module?
a. Availability
b. Testability
c. Usability
d. Flexibility
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
30. “Consider a system where, a heat sensor
detects an intrusion and alerts the security
company.” What kind of a requirement the
system is providing?
a. Functional
b. Non-Functional
c. Known Requirement
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (A)
-------------------------------------------
31. Which of the following statements explains
portability in non-functional requirements?
a. It is a degree to which software running
on one platform can easily be converted
to run on another platform.
b. It cannot be enhanced by using languages,
OS’ and tools that are universally available
and standardized.
c. The ability of the system to behave
consistently in a user-acceptable manner
when operating within the environment for
which the system was intended.
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (a)
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32. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to
Non-Functional Requirement (NFR).
a. Product-oriented Approach – Focus on
system (or software) quality
b. Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how
NFRs can be used in the design process
c. Quantitative Approach – Find
measurable scales for the functionality
attributes
d. Qualitative Approach – Study various
relationships between quality goals
Answer: Option (c)
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33. What is the first step of requirement elicitation?
a. Identifying Stakeholder
b. Listing out Requirements
c. Requirements Gathering
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (a)
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34. Arrange the tasks involved in requirements
elicitation in an appropriate manner.
i. Consolidation
ii. Prioritization
iii. Requirements Gathering
iv. Evaluation
a. iii, i, ii, iv
b. iii, iv, ii, i
c. iii, ii, iv, i
d. ii, iii, iv, i
Answer: Option (b)
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35. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a
project?
a. Evaluations to be performed
b. amount of technical work
c. audits and reviews to be performed
d. documents to be produced by the SQA
group
Answer: Option (b)
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36. Who writes the Software Requirement
Specifications Document (SRS)?
a. System Developer
b. System tester
c. System analyst
d. None of these above
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
37. What is the goal of the requirements analysis
and specifications phase of software
development life cycle?
a. Understanding the customer
requirements and organize them in an
informal document.
b. Analysing the cost of development
c. Determining scope of the software
d. None of these above
Answer: Option (a)
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38. Which of the following is not a desirable
characteristic of SRS document?
a. Concise
b. Ambiguous
c. Traceable
d. Verifiable
Answer: Option (b)
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39. What is noise in terms of software
development?
a. Writing irrelevant statement to the
software development in the SRS
document
b. Adding contradictory requirements in SRS
document
c. Writing over-specification
d. None of these above
Answer: Option (a)
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40. Which of the following is not a UML diagram?
a. Activity diagram
b. Use case
c. State diagram
d. DFD
Answer: Option (d)
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41. Degree to which design specifications are
followed in manufacturing the product is called
a. Quality Control
b. Quality of conformance
c. Quality Assurance
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (B)
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42. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that
corrections have been made to the software?
a. Project manager
b. Project team
c. SQA group
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
43. What is Six Sigma?
a. It is the most widely used strategy for
statistical quality assurance
SOFTWARE ENGINEERING 2020-21
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b. The “Six Sigma” refers to six standard
deviations
c. It is the most widely used strategy for
statistical quality assurance and The
“Six Sigma” refers to six standard
deviations
d. A Formal Technical Review (FTR)
guideline for quality walkthrough or
inspection
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
44. The degree to which the design specifications
are followed during manufacturing is known as
a. Quality of design
b. Quality of conformance
c. Quality of testing
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
45. Quality also can be looked at in terms of user
satisfaction which includes
a. A compliant product
b. Good quality output
c. Delivery within budget and schedule
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
46. The primary objective of formal technical
reviews is to find _________ during the process
so that they do not become defects after release
of the software.
a. Errors
b. Equivalent faults
c. Failure cause
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
47. Which of the following is not included in
External failure costs?
a. Testing
b. Help line support
c. Warranty work
d. Complaint resolution
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
48. Validation refers to the set of tasks that ensure
that software correctly implements a specific
function.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
49. Quality of design encompasses requirements
and specifications of the system.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
50. Which of the following is not the primary
objectives in the preliminary investigation of
system development?
a. Assess cost and benefit of alternative
approces
b. Determining the size of the project
c. Preparing the SRS to cover all the
system specifications
d. Report finding to the management with
recomendation to accept or reject the
proposal
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
51. If every requirement can be checked by a costeffective process, then the SRS is _____?
a. Verifiable
b. Complete
c. Traceable
d. Modifiable
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
52. Information requirements of an organization
can be determined by ____?
a. Finding out what similar organizations do
b. Interviewing managers and users and
arriving at the requirements based on
consensus
c. Sending a questionnaire to all employees
of the organization
d. Telling organization what they need based
on your experience
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
53. _____ and _____ are not the subject matter of
requirement analysis.
a. Performance, modelling present system
b. Functional, non-functional
c. Internal controls, present system work
load
d. Stakeholder knowledge of computers,
developer’s staff
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
54. In which testing strategy requirements
established during requirements analysis are
validated against developed software?
a. Validation testing
b. Regression testing
c. Integration testing
d. System testing
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
55. Initial requirements specification is _____?
a. Only a rough indication of the
requirement
b. Not changed till the end of the project
c. Continuously changed during project
implementation
d. Changed and finalized after feasibility
study
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
56. It is necessary to consult the following while
drawing up requirement specification.
a. Only top managers
b. Only top and middle management
c. Only top, middle and operational
managers
d. Top, middle and operational managers
and also all who will use the system
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
57. It is necessary to prioritize information
requirements of an organization at the
requirements determination phase as _____?
a. It is always good to prioritize
b. There are conflicting demands from users
c. There are constraints on budgets,
available time, human resource and
requirement
d. All good organization do it
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
58. Which of the following statements about SRS
is/are true?
i). SRS is written by customer
ii). SRS is written by a developer
iii). SRS serves as a contract between customer and
developer
a. Only i is true
b. Both ii and iii are true
c. All are true
d. None of the above
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
59. Requirement specification is carried out _____?
a. Simultaneously with requirements
determination
b. Before requirements are determined
c. After requirements are determined
d. Independent of requirements
determination
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
60. Which of the following is not included in SRS?
a. Performance
b. Functionality
c. Design solutions
d. External Interfaces
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
61. The main goal of arriving at a final
specification is _____?
a. To compute the cost of implementing the
system
b. To assist in designing the system
c. To tell the organization’s managers how
the system will function
d. To tell the organization’s managers
what the proposed system will achieve
in a language understood by them
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
62. Final specifications are drawn up by _____?
a. System designers along with users
b. The managers of user organization
c. System analyst in consultation with
programmers
d. System analyst in consultation with the
management of the organization
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
63. The role of a system analyst drawing up a
requirements specification is similar to _____?
a. Architect designing a building
b. A structural engineer designing a building
c. A contractor constructing a building
d. The workers who construct a building
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
64. Which one from the following is highly
associated activity of project planning?
a. Keep track of the project
b. Compare actual and planned progress and
costs
c. Identify the activities, milestones and
deliverables produced by a project
d. Both B and C
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
65. The final specifications are arrived at _____?
a. During feasibility study
b. After feasibility study
c. Just before implementation phase
d. When the system is being designed
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
66. Arrange the given sequence to form a SRS
prototype outline as per SRS standard.
i). General description
ii). Introduction
iii). Review
iv). Appendices
v). Specific Requirements
a. iii, i, ii,v, iv
b. iii, ii, i, v, iv
c. ii, i, v, iv, iii
d. iii, i, ii,v,iv
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
67. Requirement prioritization and negotiation
belongs to _____?
a. Feasibility study
b. Requirement elicitation
c. Requirement validation
d. Requirements reviews
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
68. System approval criteria are specified _____?
a. During feasibility study
b. During the requirements specifications
stage
c. During system study stage
d. When the final specifications are drawn
up
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
69. Which of the following is used to determine the
specificity of requirements? Where n1 is the
number of requirements for which all reviewers
have identical interpretations, n2 is number of
requirements in a specification.
a. n1/n2
b. n2/n1
c. n1+n2
d. n1–n2
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
70. Requirementmanalysis is critical to the success
of a development project.
a. True
b. False
c. Depends upon the size of project
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
71. How many feasibility studies is conducted in
Requirement Analysis?
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
72. The statement “Conformity to a standard is
maintained” depicts _____________ property
of SRS.
a. Correct
b. Complete
c. Consistent
d. Modifiable
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
73. The SRS is said to be consistent if and only if
a. its structure and style are such that any
changes to the requirements can be made
easily while retaining the style and
structure
b. every requirement stated therein is one
that the software shall meet
c. every requirement stated therein is
verifiable
d. no subset of individual requirements
described in it conflict with each other
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
74. The SRS document is also known as
_____________ specification.
a. black-box
b. white-box
c. grey-box
d. none of the mentioned
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
75. The dynamic behaviour of the system is
represented by which model?
a. Context Model
b. Behavioral Model
c. Data Model
d. Object Model
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
76. Which aspect in system modelling shows the
system or data architecture.
a. Structural aspect
23 University Academy
b. Behavioral aspect
c. External aspect
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
77. Which of the following statement is incorrect
regarding the Class-responsibility-collaborator
(CRC) modeling ?
a. All use-case scenarios (and corresponding
use-case diagrams) are organized into
categories in CRC modelling
b. The review leader reads the use-case
deliberately
c. Only developers in the review (of the
CRC model) are given a subset of the
CRC model index cards
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
78. Quality Management in software engineering is
also known as __________.
a. SQA
b. SQM
c. SQI
d. SQA and SQM
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
79. Quality in software can be looked at in terms of
user satisfaction which includes
a. A compliant product
b. Good quality output
c. Delivery within budget and schedule
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
80. Inspections and testing are __________ kinds
of Quality Costs.
a. Prevention
b. Internal Failure
c. External Failure
d. Appraisal
Answer:Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
81. According to Pareto’s principle, __________%
of defects can be traced to __________% of all
causes.
a. 60, 40
b. 70, 30
c. 80, 20
d. No such principle exists
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
82. Quality Management includes __________ .
a. Defining procedures and standards
b. Checking that procedures are followed
c. Collecting and analyzing various quality
data
d. All of the above mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
83. Non-conformance to software requirements is
known as __________ .
a. Software availability
b. Software reliability
c. Software failure
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
84. Software safety is equivalent to software
reliability.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
85. Misinterpretation of customer communication is
a sample of possible cause defects.
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a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
86. __________ kind of quality cost is incurred
when an error is detected in a product prior to
shipment.
a. Prevention
b. Internal Failure
c. External Failure
d. Appraisal
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
87. The degree to which the design specifications
are followed during development is known as
a. Quality of design
b. Quality of conformance
c. Quality of testing
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
88. An informal review may consist of__________.
a. Casual meeting
b. Correction
c. Inspection
d. Pair programming
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
89. Which of the following are objectives for FTR?
a. Allow senior staff members to correct errors
b. Assess programmer productivity
c. Determining who introduced an error into a
program
d. Uncover errors in software work
products
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
90. __________ is not one of the activities
recommended to be performed by an
independent SQA group.
a. Prepare SQA plan for the project
b. Review software engineering activities to
verify process compliance
c. Report any evidence of noncompliance to
senior management
d. Serve as the sole test team for any
software produced
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
91. __________ is not a section in the standard for
SQA plans recommended by IEEE.
a. Budget
b. Documentation
c. Reviews and audits
d. Test
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
92. Statistical quality assurance involves
__________.
a. Using sampling in place of exhaustive
testing of software
b. Surveying customers to find out their
opinions about product quality
c. Tracing each defect to its underlying
cause, isolating the "vital few"
causes, and moving to correct them
d. Tracing each defect to its underlying
causes and using the Pareto principle to
correct each problem found
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
93. Software safety is a quality assurance activity
that focuses on hazards that __________.
a. Affect the reliability of a software
component
b. May cause an entire system to fail
c. May result from user input errors
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d. Prevent profitable marketing of the final
product
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
94. Which of the following is not a core step of Six
Sigma?
a. Define
b. Control
c. Measure
d. Analyse
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
95. According to ISO 9001, inspection and testing
comes under which management responsibility?
a. Process control
b. Document control
c. Control of nonconforming products
d. Servicing
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
Unit-III
-------------------------------------------
1. Software design yields ______ levels of
results.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
2. Which of the following is not an Advantage of
modularization?
a. Smaller components are easier to
maintain.
b. Concurrent execution can be made
possible.
c. Program cannot be divided based on
functional aspects.
d. Desired level of abstraction can be brought
in the program.
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
3. How many types of cohesion are there in
software design?
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
4. Which of the following defines the degree of
intra-dependability within elements of a
module?
a. Cohesion
b. Coupling
c. Design Verification
d. None of the above
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
5. When multiple modules share common data
structure and work on different part of it, it is called
___________.
a. Common coupling
b. Share coupling
c. Data coupling
d. Stamp coupling
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
6. Which tool is use for structured designing?
a. Program Chart
b. Structure Chart
c. Module Chart
d. All the above
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
7. In Design phase, which is the primary area of
concern?
a. Architecture
b. Data
c. Interface
d. All of the above
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
8. Which of the following is the best type of
module cohesion?
a. Functional Cohesion
b. Temporal Cohesion
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c. Functional Cohesion
d. Sequential Cohesion
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
9. Which of the following is the worst type of
module coupling?
a. Control Coupling
b. Stamp Coupling
c. External Coupling
d. Content Coupling
Answer: Option (D)
-------------------------------------------
10. Choose the option that does not define Function
Oriented Software Design.
a. It consists of module definitions.
b. Modules represent data abstraction.
c. Modules support functional abstraction.
d. None of the above
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
11. Defects removal efficiency (DRE)depends on:
a. E: errors found before software delivery
b. D: defects found after delivery to user
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
12. Which of the following is an indirect measure
of product?
a. Quality
b. Complexity
c. Reliability
d. All of the above
Answer: Option (d)
13. Which of the following is not a direct measure
of SE process?
a. Efficiency
b. Cost
c. Effort Applied
d. All of the above
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
14. Which of the following is false?
a. The user has no control over the contents
of a static web page.
b. The static content objects are dependent
on the actions of the user.
c. It is expected to have less number of
connections for a good web application.
d. Both A and B
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
15. Function Point Computation is given by the
formula
a. FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)
b. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 *
sum(Fi)]
c. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
d. FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
16. SMI stands for?
a. Software Mature Indicator
b. Software Mature Index
c. Software Maturity Index
d. Software Maturity Indicator
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
17. Statement and branch coverage metrics are part
of
a. Analysis Model
b. Source Code
c. Design Model
d. Testing
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
18. Size and Complexity are a part of
a. Product Metrics
b. Process Metrics
c. Project Metrics
d. None of the above
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
19. Number of errors found per person hours
expended is an example of a
a. Measurement
b. Measure
c. Metric
d. None of the above
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
20. The arc-to-node ratio is given as r = a/n. What
does "a" represent in the ratio?
a. maximum number of nodes at any level
b. longest path from the root to a leaf
c. number of modules
d. lines of control
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
21. Which of these are the various techniques to
generate design alternatives?
a. Determine Functional Component
b. Determine Component based quality
attribute.
c. Modify an existing architecture.
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
22. Which of the following truly describes the approach determining functional component?
a. This approach is based on studying the SRS and brainstorming candidate architectural constituents responsible for coherent collections of functional and data requirements.
b. This approach begins by forming constituent and constituent relationship to satisfy non-functional requirements.
c. This approach is used for similar program if architecture is available, it can be used as starting point.4
d. This approach describes the problem.
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
23. Functional components for a working model
can be stated as which of the following?
a. Configuring Process Start up
b. Providing User interface
c. Allowing user to monitor and repa1ir
the system.
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
24. The Non-functional components consist of
____________
a. Re usability
b. Adaptability
c. Reliability
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
25. Which of the following statement is true?
a. Device interface module is a software
simulation of, or interface to, a real
hardware device or system.
b. A virtual device is a way to design a
program with complex interfaces to
device or other systems.
c. The program units in the device
interface module hides all details of
interaction with hardware devices.
d. None of the mentioned.
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
26. Which of these are followed for an ideal
device?
a. Do exactly one job completely.
b. Be loosely coupled to the rest of the
program.
c. Never change interface.
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
27. Which among these best represents Coupling
for an ideal device?
a. Do exactly one job completely.
b. Be loosely coupled to the rest of the
program.
c. Hide its Implementation.
d. Never change its interface
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
28. Which among these best represents
simplicity for an ideal device?
a. Do exactly one job completely.
b. Be loosely coupled to the rest of the
program.
c. Have a simple and consistent
interface meeting the needs of the
rest of the program.
d. Never change its interface
Answer: Option (C)
-------------------------------------------
29. Which among these are the methods to
improve software architecture?
a. Combine Alternatives
b. Impose an architectural style.
c. Apply a mid-level design pattern.
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
30. Which among these signifies applying midlevel design pattern?
a. The best features of two or more design
alternatives can be combined into an
improved design.
b. The approximate particular style may
be improved by modifying them to fit
the style exactly.
c. The architectural styles applied at
low level of abstraction.
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
31. The intent of project metrics is:
a. Minimization of development schedule.
b. for strategic purposes
c. assessing project quality on ongoing
basis.
d. minimization of development
schedule and assessing project
quality on ongoing basis.
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
32. Which of the following is an indirect
measure of product?
a. Quality
b. Complexity
c. Reliability
d. All of the Mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
33. In size-oriented metrics, metrics are
developed based on the ___________________
a. number of Functions
b. number of user inputs
c. number of lines of code
d. amount of memory usage
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
34. Which of the following is not an information
domain required for determining function point
in FPA?
a. Number of user Input
b. Number of user Inquiries
c. Number of external Interfaces
d. Number of errors
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
35. Usability can be measured in terms of
a. Intellectual skill to learn the system
b. Time required to become moderately
efficient in system usage
c. Net increase in productivity
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
36. A graphical technique for finding if changes
and variation in metrics data are meaningful is
known as
a. DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)
b. Function points analysis
c. Control Chart
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
37. Which of the following does not affect the
software quality and organizational
performance?
a. Market
b. Product
c. Technology
d. People
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
38. Size and complexity are part of
a. Process metrics
b. Project metrics
c. Product metrics
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
39. Architectural design metrics focus on
a. Program architect
b. Data structure
c. Internal module complexity.
d. Module effectiveness and Architectural
design
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
40. Which are not measurable characteristics of
object-oriented design?
a. Efficiency
b. Cost
c. Size
d. Volatability
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
41. Which of the following is not an objective of
high-level design activity?
a. To identify the important components of
the system.
b. To design the layering among the
components of the system.
c. To design the algorithms used in
different components
d. To identify the call relationships among
different components
Answer: Option (C)
-------------------------------------------
42. In which of the following design phases, do the
software designers free to make any alterations,
corrections and modifications?
a. Preliminary design phase
b. Detailed design phase
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
43) Which one of the following types of cohesion
can be considered as the best form of cohesion?
a. Logical
b. Coincidental
c. Temporal
d. Functional
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
44. During the detailed design of a module, which
one of the following is designed?
a. Data structures and algorithms
b. Control structure
c. Data flow structure
d. Module call relationships
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
45. Which one of the following is the correct
ordering of the coupling of modules from strongest
to weakest?
a. Content, common, control, stamp, data
b. Common, content, control, stamp, data
c. Content, data, common, stamp, common
d. Data, control, common, stamp, content
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
46. Which of the following objectives are not the
one that the software designing phase claim to
offer?
i. Identify software design activities
ii. Identify important items developed during
the software design phase
iii. To improve the designing skills of the
developers
a. All i, ii and iii are correct.
b. Only i and ii are correct.
c. Only i and iii are correct.
d. None of the given options is correct.
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
47. Which of the following statements is true?
i. The software design phase comes after the
feasibility and resources analysis phase.
ii. The quality of the software depends upon
the design phase a lot.
a. Only i is true.
b. Only ii is true.
c. Both i and ii are true.
d. None of them is true.
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
48. What encapsulates both data and data
manipulation functions?
a. Object
b. Class
c. Super Class
d. Sub Class
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
49. Which of the following is a mechanism that
allows several objects in a class hierarchy to have
different methods with the same name?
a. Aggregation
b. Polymorphism
c. Inheritance
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (A)
-------------------------------------------
50. Which of the following points related to
Object-oriented development (OOD) is true?
a. OOA is concerned with developing an
object model of the application domain.
b. OOD is concerned with developing an
object-oriented system model to
implement requirements.
c. All of the mentioned
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
51. Which of the following is not a direct measure
of SE process?
a. Efficiency
b. Cost
c. Effort Applied
d. All of the above
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
52. Function Point Computation is given by the
formula
a. FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)
b. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 *
sum(Fi)]
c. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
d. FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
Answer: Option (B)
-------------------------------------------
51. Which of the following does not belong to
FURPS?
a. Functionality
b. Usability
c. Reliability
d. Speed Efficiency
Answer:Option (d)
52. __________ is the first step in the software
development life cycle.
a. Analysis
b. Design
c. Problem/Opportunity Identification
d. Development and Documentation
Answer:Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
53. __________ tool is used for structured
designing.
a. Program flowchart
b. Structure chart
c. Data-flow diagram
d. Module
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
54. A clear statement of the goals and objectives of
the project is; in the analysis phase, the
development of the ________________ occurs.
a. documentation
b. flowchart
c. program specification
d. design
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
55. __________ designs and implement database
structures.
a. Programmers
b. Project managers
c. Technical writers
d. Database administrators
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
56. In the design phase, __________ is the primary
area of concern.
a. Architecture
b. Data
c. Interface
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
57. m A single word __________ summarize the
importance of software design.
(a) Efficiency
(b) Accuracy
(c) Quality
(d) Complexity
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
58. __________ is not an area of concern in the
design model.
a. Architecture
b. Data
c. Interfaces
d. Project scope
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
59. Which of these are characteristics of a good
design?
a. The design must implement all explicit
requirements available in requirement
model.
b. The design must accommodate all implicit
requirements given by stakeholders.
c. voice recognition commands
d. All of the above options
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
60. Which of the following is not a characteristic
common to all design methods?
a. configuration management
b. functional component representation
c. quality assessment guidelines
d. refinement heuristics
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
61. __________ is not a characteristic common to
all design methods.
a. configuration management
b. functional component representation
c. quality assessment guidelines
d. refinement heuristics
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
62. Which are the characteristics of good software
design?
a. The design must implement all explicit
requirements available in requirement
model.
b. The design must accommodate all implicit
requirements given by stakeholders.
c. The design must be readable &
understandable.
d. All of the above options
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
63. __________ transforms class models into
design class realization and prepares data structure
(data design) required to implement the software.
a. Data Design
b. Architectural Design
c. Interface Design
d. Procedural Design
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
64. __________ defines the relationship between
major structural elements of the software.
a. Data Design
b. Architectural Design
c. Interface Design
d. Procedural Design
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
65. __________ defines how software
communicates with systems & with humans. An
interface implies a flow of information & behavior.
a. Data Design
b. Architectural Design
c. Interface Design
d. Procedural Design
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
66. __________ transforms structural elements of
software into procedural description of software
components.
a. Data Design
b. Architectural Design
c. Interface Design
d. Procedural Design
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
67. Which of the following is wrong with reference
to Software Design Principles.
a. Design process should not suffer from
“tunnel vision”.
b. Design should be traceable to the analysis
model.
c. Design should not reinvent the wheel.
d. Design should “maximize the
intellectual distance” between the
software and the real-world problem.
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
68. Which of the following is Architectural Styles
a. Data-centered architecture style
b. Data-flow architectures
c. Call and return architecture.
d. All of the above options
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
69. Filter & Pipes are the concept of which
Architectural Style
a. Data-centered architecture style
b. Data-flow architectures
c. Call and return architecture.
d. Layered architecture
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
70. Main program/subprogram architectures &
Remote procedure call architectures are sub styles
of __________.
a. Data-centered architecture style
b. Data-flow architectures
c. Call and return architecture.
d. Layered architecture
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
71. Which option does not define Function
Oriented Software Design?
a. It consists of module definitions.
b. Modules represent data abstraction.
c. Modules support functional abstraction.
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
72. Structured Analysis is based on, which
principles?
a. Top-down decomposition approach
b. Divide and conquer principle.
c. Graphical representation of results using
DFDs.
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
73. Rectangle represents __________ DFD
notation.
a. Transform
b. Data Store
c. Function
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
74. Structural decomposition is concerned with
function calls.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
75. A function-oriented design focuses on the
entities in the system rather than the data
processing activities.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
76. The system is denoted by __________ in DFD.
a. Circle
b. Arrow
c. Rectangle
d. Triangle
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
77. Which of the following is not an activity of
Structured Analysis (SA)?
a. Functional decomposition
b. Transformation of a textual problem
description into a graphic model
c. All the functions represented in the
DFD are mapped to a module structure.
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
78. The results of structured analysis can be easily
understood by ordinary customers.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
79. Structured Analysis is based on the principle of
Bottom-Up Approach.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
80. Which of the following points are true, with
reference to the Object-oriented development
(OOD)?
a. OOA is concerned with developing an
object model of the application domain.
b. OOD is concerned with developing an
object-oriented system model to
implement requirements.
c. All of the mentioned.
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
81. __________ is a disadvantage of OOD.
a. Easier maintenance
b. Objects may be understood as stand-alone
entities.
c. Objects are potentially reusable
components.
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
82. A software component
a. Implements some functionality.
b. Has explicit dependencies through
provides and required interfaces.
c. Communicates through its interfaces only.
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
83. Design patterns are not applicable to the design
of object-oriented software?
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
84. __________ is/are the characteristics of a wellformed design class.
a. Primitiveness
b. High cohesion
c. Low coupling
d. All of the above
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
85. Independence of module is assessed using two
qualitative criteria. What are those criteria?
a. Cohesion and coupling
b. Module and modularity
c. Cyclomatic complexity and modularity
d. None of the above
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
86. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the
degree to which a module
a. can be written more compactly.
b. focuses on just one thing.
c. is able to complete its function in a timely
manner.
d. is connected to other modules and the
outside world.
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
87. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the
degree to which a module
a. can be written more compactly.
b. focuses on just one thing.
c. is able to complete its function in a timely
manner.
d. is connected to other modules and the
outside world.
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
88. Which of the property of software modularity is
incorrect with respect to benefits software
modularity?
a. Modules are robust.
b. Module can use other modules.
c. Modules Can be separately compiled and
stored in a library.
d. Modules are mostly dependent.
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
89. __________ is an indication of the relative
functional strength of a module.
a. Cohesion
b. Coupling
c. Modularity
d. Cohesion and coupling.
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
90. Independent modules are easier to maintain and
test because of __________ .
a. Code modification is limited.
b. Error propagation is reduced.
c. Reusable modules are possible.
d. All of the above
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
91. __________ is a measure of the degree of
interdependence between modules.
a. Cohesion
b. Coupling
c. None of the mentioned
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
92. A software engineer must design the modules
with the goal of high cohesion and low coupling.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
93. In __________ coupling, the complete data
structure is passed from one module to another.
a. Control Coupling
b. Stamp Coupling
c. External Coupling
d. Content Coupling
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
94. If all tasks must be executed in the same timespan, __________type of cohesion is being
exhibited.
a. Functional Cohesion
b. Temporal Cohesion
c. Functional Cohesion
d. Sequential Cohesion
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
95. Which of the following is / are the type of
Cohesion?
a. Functional
b. Coincidental
c. Communicational
d. All of the above.
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
96.What is the meaning of Functional Cohesion?
a. Operations are part of single functional
task and are placed in same procedures.
b. All operations that access the same data
are defined within one class.
c. All operations that access the data from
outside the module.
d. None of the above.
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
97. Which is the worst type of coupling?
a. Control coupling
b. Data coupling
c. Content coupling
d. Stamp coupling
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
98. Which is the most desirable form of coupling?
a. Control coupling
b. Data coupling
c. Common coupling
d. Stamp coupling
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
99. Which from the following is the most desirable
form of cohesion?
a. Logical cohesion
b. Functional cohesion
c. Procedural cohesion
d. Communicational cohesion
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
100. Which from the following is the worst form of
cohesion?
a. Functional cohesion
b. Sequential cohesion
c. Temporal cohesion
d. Coincidental cohesion
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
101. "Three statements are given below regarding
the User Interface Design,
1. Place the user in control.
2. Reduce the user’s memory load.
3. Make the interface consistent.
These rules are called as __________."
a. Golden Rule
b. Silver Rule
c. User Rule
d. Interface rule
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
102. Which of the following is golden rule for
interface design?
a. Place the user in control
b. Reduce the user’s memory load
c. Make the interface consistent
d. All of the given options
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
103. __________is not a design principle that
allows the user to maintain control.
a. Provide for flexible interaction
b. Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able
and undo-able
c. Show technical internals from the
casual user
d. design for direct interaction with objects
that appear on the screen
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
104. __________is not a user interface design
process.
a. User, task, and environment analysis and
modelling.
b. Interface design
c. Knowledgeable, frequent users
d. Interface validation
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
105. When users are involved in complex tasks, the
demand on __________can be significant.
a. short-term memory
b. shortcuts
c. objects that appear on the screen
d. all of the mentioned
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
106. __________is not considered by the Interface
design.
a. the design of interfaces between software
components
b. the design of interfaces between the
software and human producers and
consumers of information
c. the design of the interface between two
computers
d. all of the mentioned
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
107. A software might allow a user to interact via
a. keyboard commands
b. mouse movement
c. voice recognition commands
d. all of the mentioned
108. A software engineer designs the user interface
by applying an iterative process that draws on
predefined design principles.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
109. What incorporates data, architectural,
interface, and procedural representations of the
software?
a. design model
b. user’s model
c. mental image
d. system image
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
110. What establishes the profile of end-users of
the system?
a. design model
b. user’s model
c. mental image
d. system image
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
Unit-IV
-------------------------------------------
1. The order in which test levels are performed is:
a. Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System
b. Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance
c. Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance
d. It depends on the nature of a project
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
a. System testing is a Black box testing.
b. Grey box testing
c. White box testing
d. Both a and b
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
2. What is “V” Model?
a. Test Design Technique
b. Test Type
c. SDLC Model
d. Test Level
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
3. Test cases are designed during which of the
following stages?
a. Test recording
b. Test configuration
c. Test planning
d. Test specification
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
4. which is not the other name for structural
testing?
a. Behavioural testing
b. Glass box testing
c. White box testing
d. None of the above
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
5. The technique applied for usability testing is:
a. White box
b. Grey box
c. Black box
d. Regression Testing
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
6. Which of the following is not a Test Type?
a. Database Testing
b. Security Testing
c. Statement Testing
d. Functional Testing
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
7. Static analysis can be best described as:
a. The reviewing of test plans
b. The analysis of batch programs
c. The use of black box testing
d. The analysis of program code
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
8. Exhaustive testing is:
a. Always possible
b. impractical but possible
c. practically possible
d. impractical and impossible
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
9. Which is not a type of incremental testing
approach?
a. Bottom up
b. Top down
c. Big-bang
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
10. White-box testing can be started:
a. After installation
b. After SRS creation
c. After programming
d. After designing.
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
11. What is Fault Masking?
a. Creating a test case which does not reveal
a fault.
b. Error condition hiding another error
condition.
c. Masking a fault by developer
d. Masking a fault by a tester
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
12. Which of the following is the component test
standard?
a. BS7925-2
b. IEEE 829
c. BS7925-1
d. IEEE 610
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
13. Testing of software with actual data and in
actual environment is known as?
a. Regression testing
b. Beta testing
c. Alpha testing
d. None of the above
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
14. Beta Testing is done at:
a. Developer’s end
b. User’s end
c. User’s & Developer’s end
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
15. A program with high cyclomatic complexity is
likely to be:
a. Large
b. Small
c. Difficult to write.
d. Difficult to test.
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
16. Unit testing is done by:
a. Users
b. Developers
c. Customers
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
17. Which of the following is not a Software
Development Life Cycle Phase?
a. Requirements Gathering
b. Test Closure
c. Coding
d. Testing
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
18. In order to control cost, defects should ideally
be detected in which phase:
a. Coding
b. Design
c. Implementation
d. Requirements Gathering
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
20) Error guessing is a:
a. Test verification techniques
b. Test data management techniques
c. Test control management techniques
d. Test execution techniques
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
20. Which of the following is not a white box
technique?
a. State transition testing
b. Path testing
c. Statement testing
d. Data flow testing.
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
21. Alpha testing is:
a. Post-release testing by end user
representatives at the developer’s site
b. The first testing that is performed.
c. Pre-release testing by end user
representatives at their sites
d. Pre-release testing by end user
representatives at the developer’s site
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
22. Which of the following term describes testing?
a. Finding broken code
b. Evaluating deliverable to find errors.
c. A stage of all projects
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
23. What is Cyclomatic complexity?
a. Black box testing
b. White box testing
c. Yellow box testing
d. Green box testing
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
24. Maintenance testing is performed using which
methodology?
a. Retesting
b. Sanity testing
c. Breadth test and depth test
d. Confirmation testing
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
25. Which of the following is/are White box
technique?
a. Statement Testing
b. Decision Testing
c. Condition Coverage
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
26. What are the various Testing Levels?
a. Unit Testing
b. System Testing
c. Integration Testing
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
27. Boundary value analysis belongs to?
a. White Box Testing
a. Black Box Testing
b. White Box & Black Box Testing
c. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
28. Alpha testing is done at
a. Developer’s end
b. User’s end
c. Developer’s & User’s end
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
29. Which of the following is also known as
"Behavioural" testing?
a. Black-box testing
b. White-box testing
c. C. Both A and B
d. None of the above
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
30. Which methodology is used to perform
Maintenance testing?
a. Breadth test and depth test
b. Confirmation testing
c. Retesting
d. Sanity testing
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
31. Which of the following is not part of the Test
document?
a. Test Case
b. Requirements Traceability Matrix [RTM]
c. Test strategy
d. Project Initiation Note [PIN]
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
32. Which of the following testing is related to the
boundary value analysis?
a. White box and black box testing
b. White-box testing
c. Black box testing
d. None of the above
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
33. Exploratory testing is a -----?
a. Experience-based Test Design
Technique
b. White Box Test Design Technique
c. Black Box Test Design Technique
d. Grey Box Test Design Technique
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
34. What is the best time to perform Regression
testing?
a. After the software has been modified
b. As frequently as possible
c. When the environment has been modified
d. Both option a & c
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
35. Which Test Document is used to define the Exit
Criteria of Testing?
a. Defect Report
b. Test Summary Report
c. Test Case
d. Test Plan
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
36. Which testing technique is used for usability
testing?
a. White-box testing
b. Grey box testing
c. Black Box testing
d. Combination of all
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
37. Which is not the right approach of Incremental
testing approach?
a. Big bang approach
b. Top-down approach
c. Functional incrimination
d. Bottom-up approach
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
38. The test levels are performed in which of the
following order?
a. Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance
b. It is based on the nature of the project.
c. Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System
d. Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
39. Which of the below testing is executed without
documentation and planning is known as?
a. Regression Testing
b. Adhoc Testing
c. Unit Testing
d. None of the above
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
40. The Regression test case is not a ------?
a. Tests that focus on the software
components, which have been modified.
b. Low-level components are combined
into clusters, which perform a specific
software sub-function.
c. Additional tests that emphasize software
functions, which are likely to be affected by
the change.
d. A representative sample of tests, which will
exercise all software functions.
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
41. Which of the following abbreviation is correct
for the terms SPICE?
a. Software Process Improvement and
Control Determination
b. Software Process Improvement and
Capability Determination
c. Software Process Improvement and
Compatibility Determination
d. None of the above
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
42. "Automation testing should be performed
before starting the manual testing" is the true
statement or false?
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
43. --------- is the process of re-testing the modules
that connected to the program or components after
the modification has occurred.
a. Regional regression Testing
b. Re-testing
c. Full Regression Testing
d. Unit Regression Testing
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
44. Who is responsible for sprint meeting?
a. Scrum team
b. Scrum master
c. Product owner
d. All of the above
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
45. Generally, which testing is used when shrinkwrapped software products are being established
and part of an integration testing?
a. Integration Testing
b. Validation testing
c. Regression Testing
d. Smoke testing
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
46. Given the following sets of test management
terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which
one of the following best pairs the two sets?
v – Test control
w – Test monitoring
x – Test estimation
y – Incident management
z – Configuration control
1 – Calculation of required test resources
2 – Maintenance of record of test results
3 – Re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 – Report on deviation from test plan
5 – Tracking of anomalous test results
a. v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b. v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c. v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
SOFTWARE ENGINEERING 2020-21
45 University Academy
d. v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5
Answer: Option (C)
-------------------------------------------
47. The oracle assumption:
a. Is that there is some existing system
against which test output may be checked.
b. Is that the tests are reviewed by
experienced testers?
c. Is that the tester knows everything about
the software under test.
d. Is that the tester can routinely identify
the correct outcome of a test.
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
48. Static analysis is best described as:
a. The analysis of batch programs.
b. The reviewing of test plans.
c. The use of black box testing.
d. The analysis of program code.
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
49. Increasing the quality of the software, by better
development methods, will affect the time needed
for testing (the test phases) by:
a. Reducing test time
b. Increasing test time
c. No change
d. Can’t say
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
50. Which of the following characterizes the cost of
faults?
a. They are easiest to find during system
testing but the most
expensive to fix then.
b. They are cheapest to find in the early
development phases and the
most expensive to fix in the latest test
phases.
c. Faults are cheapest to find in the early
development phases but the
most expensive to fix then.
d. Although faults are most expensive to find
during early development
phases, they are cheapest to fix then.
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
51. The objective of __________ phase is to
transform the design of the system into high-level
language.
a. Design phase
b. Unit testing
c. Coding
d. Testing
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
52. The main advantage of adhering to coding
standard is
a. Uniform appearance to the codes written
by different engineers.
b. Enhances code understanding.
c. Good programming practice
d. All of the above
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
53. Which of the following is/are representative
coding guidelines.
a. Do not use a coding style that is too clever
or too difficult to understand.
b. Do not use an identifier for multiple
purposes.
c. The code should be well-documented.
d. All of the above
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
54. Which activity should be undertaken after the
module successfully compiles?
a. Code review
b. Unit testing
c. Integration testing
d. All of the given options
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
55. Which of the following is Algorithmic fault?
a. Logic is wrong Code reviews
b. Wrong syntax; typos Compiler
c. Not enough accuracy
d. Maximum load violated
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
56. Which of the following is Syntax fault?
a. Logic is wrong Code reviews
b. Wrong syntax; typos Compiler
c. Not enough accuracy
d. Maximum load violated.
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
57. Which of the following is Precision fault?
a. Logic is wrong Code reviews.
b. Wrong syntax; typos Compiler
c. Not enough accuracy
d. Maximum load violated.
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
58. Which of the following is Stress/Overload
fault?
a. Logic is wrong Code reviews.
b. Wrong syntax; typos Compiler
c. Not enough accuracy
d. Maximum load violated.
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
59. Which of the following are type of code
review?
a. Code inspection
b. Code walkthrough
c. Both
d. None
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
60. __________ helps to detect the algorithmic
and logical error in code.
a. Code walkthrough
b. Code inspection
c. Both
d. None
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
61.__________ helps to detect common
programming errors in code.
a. Code walkthrough
b. Code inspection
c. Both
d. None
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
62. Which of the following are some classical
programming errors?
a. Use of uninitialized variables.
b. Jumps into loops.
c. Array indices out of bound.
d. All of the given options
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
63. Which of the following defines Static Analysis?
a. The analysis of batch programs.
b. The reviewing of test plans.
c. The analysis of program code
d. The use of black box testing.
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
64. Which of the following is true regarding Static
Analysis Tools?
a. It compares actual and expected results.
b. It can detect memory leaks.
c. It gives quality information about code
without executing it.
d. It tells about percentage of a code
coverage.
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
65. ITG stands for __________.
a. instantaneous test group
b. integration testing group
c. individual testing group
d. independent test group
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
66. Which term describes testing?
a. Finding broken code
b. Evaluating deliverable to find errors.
c. A stage of all projects
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
67. What are the various Testing Levels?
a. Unit Testing
b. System Testing
c. Integration Testing
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
68. Unit testing is performed by __________.
a. Users
b. Developers
c. Customers
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
69. __________ serve to replace modules that are
subordinate (called by) the component to be tested.
a. Stubs
b. Driver
c. Carrier
d. All of the given options
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
70. __________ is used in Bottom-up testing
approach.
a. Stubs
b. Driver
c. Carrier
d. All of the given options
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
71. __________ is used in Top-down testing
approach.
a. Stubs
b. Driver
c. Carrier
d. All of the given options
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
72. __________ is the process of testing the
interface between two software units or modules?
a. Unit Testing
b. Integration Testing
c. Validation Testing
d. System Testing
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
73. __________ is repeated testing of an already
tested program, after modification, to discover any
defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the
changes in the software being tested?
a. Unit Testing
b. Regression Testing
c. Validation Testing
d. System Testing
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
74. When to do regression testing?
a. When new functionalities are added to
the application?
b. When there is a change requirement.
c. When there is a defect fix.
d. All of the given options
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
75. __________ is the process of evaluating
software to determine whether it satisfies specified
business requirements/client’s need?
a. Unit Testing
b. Integration Testing
c. Validation Testing
d. System Testing
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
76. Alpha testing is done at __________.
a. Developer’s end
b. User’s end
c. Developer’s & User’s end
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
77. Beta testing is done at __________.
a. User’s end
b. Developer’s end
c. User’s & Developer’s end
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
78. Which testing level focuses on customer usage?
a. Alpha Testing
b. Beta Testing
c. Validation Testing
d. Both Alpha and Beta
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
79. Black Box techniques are also known as
__________.
a. Design based testing.
b. Specification-based testing
c. Error guessing technique
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
80. White Box techniques are also classified as
__________.
a. Design based testing
b. Structural testing
c. Error guessing technique
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
81. Lower and upper limits are present in
__________ chart.
a. Run chart.
b. Bar chart
c. Control chart
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
82. Behavioural testing is __________.
a. White box testing
b. Black box testing
c. Grey box testing
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (b)
83. __________ is Equivalence Partitioning.
a. Black box testing
b. White box testing
c. Yellow box testing
d. Green box testing
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
84. __________ is Boundary Value Analysis
(BVA).
a. Black box testing
b. White box testing
c. Yellow box testing
d. Green box testing
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
85. __________ is Cyclomatic complexity.
a. Black box testing
b. White box testing
c. Yellow box testing
d. Green box testing
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
86. Which of the following is/are White box
technique?
a. Statement Testing
b. Decision Testing
c. Condition Coverage
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
87. Boundary value analysis belong to?
a. White Box Testing
b. Black Box Testing
c. White Box & Black Box Testing
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
88. Which of the following terms defines the
statement, "Every statement in a program is
executed at least once"?
a. Statement Coverage
b. Branch coverage
c. Path coverage
d. Program overage
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
89. Which of the following terms defines the
statement, "Test cases are designed to make each
branch condition to assume true and false values in
turn"?
a. Statement Coverage
b. Branch coverage
c. Path coverage
d. Program overage
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
90. Which of the following terms defines the
statement, "Every path is executed at least once"?
a. Statement Coverage
b. Branch coverage
c. Path coverage
d. Program overage
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
91. __________ testing checks code.
a. Black box testing
b. White box testing
c. Red box testing
d. Green box testing
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
92. Testing done without planning and
Documentation is called
a. Unit testing
b. Regression testing
c. Adhoc testing
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
93. Acceptance testing is also known
as__________.
a. Grey box testing
b. White box testing
c. Alpha Testing
d. Beta testing
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
94. __________ is non-functional testing.
a. Black box testing
b. Performance testing
c. Unit testing
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
95. __________ is black box testing.
a. Basic path testing
b. Boundary value analysis
c. Code path analysis
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
96. Software Debugging is a set of activities that
can be planned in advance and conducted
systematically.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
97. By collecting ________ during software
testing, it is possible to develop meaningful
guidelines to halt the testing process.
a. Failure intensity
b. Testing time
c. Metrics
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
98. Which of the following issues must be
addressed if a successful software testing strategy
is to be implemented?
a. Use effective formal technical reviews as
a filter prior to testing
b. Develop a testing plan that emphasizes
“rapid cycle testing.”
c. State testing objectives explicitly
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
99. Test cases should uncover errors like
__________.
a. Non-existent loop termination
b. Comparison of different data types
c. Incorrect logical operators or precedence
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
100. __________ is considered as an adjunct to the
coding step.
a. Integration testing
b. Unit testing
c. Completion of Testing
d. Regression Testing
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
101. __________ is not regression test case.
a. A representative sample of tests that will
exercise all software functions.
b. Additional tests that focus on software
functions that are likely to be affected by
the change.
c. Tests that focus on the software
components that have been changed.
d. Low-level components are combined
into clusters that perform a specific
software sub-function.
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
102. __________ testing integrates the set of
classes required to respond to one input or event for
the system.
a. cluster testing
b. thread-based testing
c. use-based testing
d. none of the mentioned
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
103. Which of the following is one of the steps in
the integration testing of OO software?
a. cluster testing
b. thread-based testing
c. use-based testing
d. none of the mentioned
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
104. Which methods can be used to drive
validations tests?
a. Yellow-box testing
b. Black-box testing
c. White-box testing
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
105 __________ is a part of testing OO code.
a. Validation tests
b. Integration tests
c. Class tests
d. System tests
Answer: Option (c)
57.
106. In which of the following testing strategies, a
smallest testable unit is the encapsulated class or
object?
a. Unit testing
b. Integration testing
c. System testing
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
107. Software Testing with real data in real
environment is known as__________.
a. Alpha testing
b. Beta testing
c. Regression testing
d. None of the given options.
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
108. Beta Testing is done by__________.
a. Developers
b. Testers
c. Users
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
Unit- V
-------------------------------------------
1. Software Maintenance includes
a. Error corrections
b. Enhancements of capabilities
c. Deletion of obsolete capabilities
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
2. Maintenance is classified into how many
categories?
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. five
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
3. The modification of the software to match
changes in the ever-changing environment, falls
under which category of software maintenance?
a. Corrective
a. Adaptive
b. Perfective
c. Preventive
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
4. What type of software testing is generally used
in Software Maintenance?
a. Regression Testing
b. System Testing
c. Integration Testing
d. Unit Testing
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
5. Which selective retest technique selects every
test case that causes a modified program to produce
a different output than its original version?
a. Coverage
b. Minimization
c. Safe
d. Maximization
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
6. _____________ measures the ability of a
regression test selection technique to handle
realistic applications.
a. Efficiency
b. Precision
c. Generality
d. Inclusiveness
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
7. Which regression test selection technique
exposes faults caused by modifications?
a. Efficiency
b. Precision
c. Generality
d. Inclusiveness
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
8. Which of the following is true about Corrective Maintenance?
a. It includes modifications and updations done in order to correct or fix problems, which are either discovered by user or concluded by user error reports.
b. It includes modifications and updations applied to keep the software product up-to date and tuned to the ever-changing world of technology and business environment.
c. It includes modifications and updates done in order to keep the software usable over long period of time.
d. It includes modifications and updations to prevent future problems of the software.
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
9.Which of the following is not a type of
maintenance?
a. Adaptive Maintenance
b. Preventive Maintenance
c. Perfective Maintenance
d. Performative Maintenance
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
10.Which process is used to achieve system
specification by thoroughly analyzing,
understanding the existing system?
a. Program Restructuring
b. Reverse Engineering
c. Forward Engineering
d. None of the above
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
11.What type of software testing is generally used in
Software Maintenance?
a. System Testing
b. Black-box testing
c. White-box testing
d. Regression Testing
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
12. What are legacy systems?
a. new systems
b. old systems
c. under-developed systems
d. None of the above
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
13. The continued evolution of legacy systems
applies which techniques to ensure?
a. Reverse Engineering and Reengineering
b. Reverse Engineering
c. Reengineering
d. Forward engineering
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
14. The Maintenance of software includes.
a. Error corrections Different activity of a
project management
b. Enhancements of capabilities
c. Deletion of obsolete capabilities
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
15. Different activity of a project management is
a. Project planning
b. project control
c. project monitoring
d. All the above
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
16. Which of the following activity is undertaken
immediately after feasibility study and before the
requirement analysis and specification phase?
a. Project planning
b. project control
c. project monitoring
d. Project scheduling
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
17. This activity is undertaken once the
development activities start?
a. Project planning
b. project monitoring & control
c. project cost estimation
d. Project size estimation
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
18. Which of the following activity is not the part
of project planning?
a. Risk Management
b. Project control
c. Project monitoring
d. Project scheduling
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
19. In the project planning, which of the following
is considered as the most basic parameter based on
which all other estimates are made?
a. project cost
b. project size
c. project effort
d. project duration
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
20. During project estimation, project manager
estimates following
a. ALL
b. Project size
c. Project effort
d. project duration.
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
21. Which of the following is not project
management goal?
a. Keeping overall costs within budget
b. Delivering the software to the customer at
the agreed time
c. Maintaining a happy and well-functioning
development tea
d. Avoiding customer complaints
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
22. Which of the following is not considered as a
risk in project management?
a. Specification delays
b. Product competition
c. Testing
d. Staff turnover
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
23. The process each manager follows during the
life of a project is known as
a. Project Management
b. Manager life cycle
c. Project Management Life Cycle
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
24. A 66.6% risk is considered as
a. very low
b. low
c. moderate
d. high
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
25. Which of the following is/are main parameters
that you should use when computing the costs of a
software development project?
a. travel and training costs
b. hardware and software costs
c. effort costs (the costs of paying software
engineers and managers)
d. all of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
26.Quality planning is the process of developing a
quality plan for
a. team
b. project
c. customers
d. project manager
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
27. Which of the following is incorrect activity for
the configuration management of a software
system?
a. Internship management
b. Change management
c. Version management
d. System management
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
28.A software project that meets all the given
objectives is a success of _________.
a. Project fundamental purpose
b. Project quality
c. Project requirement
d. Project management myth
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
29___________ is not an effective software project
management focus.
a. People
b. Product
c. Process
d. popularity.
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
30._________ is not a project manager’s activity.
a. project design
b. project management
c. project planning
d. project control
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
31. Which of the following software maintenance
process models is used when major changes are to
be made in a software?
a. Primary model
b. Secondary model
c. Tertiary model
d. Any of the above
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
32. Which of the following statements is true?
i. Reverse software engineering cycle is
done when the client’s need, old code, etc.
are not available.
ii. Reverse software engineering cycle is
done when the client’s need, old code, etc.
are available.
Options:
a. Only i is true
b. Only ii is true
c. Both i and ii are true
d. None of them is true.
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
33. The Software Configuration Management
(SCM) is called the umbrella activity.
a. False
b. True
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
34. The main aim of Software Configuration
Management (SCM) is _____
a. Identify change
b. Control change
c. To ensure that the change is being
properly implemented
d. All of these
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
35. Select the process that will ensure different
versions of the system and components of the
system are recorded and maintained?
a. Workspace
b. code control
c. Configuration Control
d. Versions
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
36. Select the Software Configuration Management
concept that aids to control change?
a. Procedure
b. Baseline
c. Audit
d. None of the above
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
37. The output of the Software Process is _______
a. Computer programs
b. The Documents which describe the
computer programs.
c. Data (within the program or external to
program).
d. All of these
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
38. The Software Configuration items are
________
a. Software Requirements
b. Design Specification
c. Source Code
d. All of these
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
39. The task that is not a part of Software
Configuration Management (SCM) is ______
a. Change control
b. Version control
c. Configuration status reporting
d. None of the above
e. None of these
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
40. Which of the following combines procedures
and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the
software process?
a. Configuration status reporting.
b. Version control
c. Change control
d. None of the above
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
41. As the reliability increases, what happens to the
failure intensity?
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. No effect
d. None of the above
e. None of these
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
42. The process each manager follows during the
life of a project is known as ___________?
a. Project Management
b. Manager life cycle
c. Project Management Life Cycle
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
43. What stores all changes and info related to the
project from development through maintenance in
CASE tools?
a. Database
b. Repository
c. Register
d. Files
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
44. _____is the associated with the Product Risk.
a. Test object
b. non-availability of the test environment
c. Negative consequences
d. Control of test item
e. None of these
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
45. one of the following factors affect the probable
consequences?
a. Risk timing
b. Contingency planning
c. Risk avoidance
d. Risk monitoring
e. None of these
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
46.______is the Risk management most important
jobs.
a. Project manager
b. Production team
c. Investor
d. Client
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
47. one of the following is Risk management
responsibility?
a. Project team
b. Investor
c. Developer
d. Customer
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
48. one of the following ways to deal with a Risk?
a. Transfer
b. Ignore
c. Mitigate
d. All of these
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
49. _____model is used to Project risk factor.
a. Prototyping model
b. Waterfall model
c. Spiral model
d. None of these
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
50. ______strategies means that the impact of the
risk will be reduced.
a. Contingency plans
b. Avoidance strategies
c. Minimization strategies
d. All of these
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
51. RE indicates_____.
a. Risk exposure
b. Related expense
c. Risk expense
d. Risk evaluation
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
52. one of the following is Risk?
a. The negative consequence that must occur
b. The negative consequence that will occur
SOFTWARE ENGINEERING 2020-21
58 University Academy
c. The negative consequence that could
occur
d. The negative consequence that shall occur
e. None of these
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
53. _____ Risk is the really want Building an
excellent product or system.
a. Business
b. Schedule
c. Technical
d. Performance
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
54. Legacy systems are __________ .
a. new systems
b. old systems
c. under-developed systems
d. none of the mentioned
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
55. __________ is applied to ensure the continued
evolution of legacy systems.
a. Forward engineering
b. Reverse Engineering
c. Reengineering
d. Reverse Engineering and Reengineering
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
56. Software Maintenance includes
a. Deletion of obsolete capabilities
b. Enhancements of capabilities
c. Error corrections
d. All of the given options
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
57. Program modularization and Source code
translation are the activities of __________
a. Reengineering
b. Forward engineering
c. Reverse Engineering
d. Reverse Engineering and Reengineering
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
58. Reverse engineering is the last activity in a
reengineering project.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
59. __________ activity transformes a model into
source code.
a. Forward engineering
b. Reverse engineering
c. Re-engineering
d. Reconstructing
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
60. Software evolution does not comprises:
a. Development activities
b. Negotiating with client
c. Maintenance activities
d. Re-engineering activities
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
61. Processes for evolving a software product
depend on:
a. Type of software to be maintained
b. Development processes used
c. Skills and experience of the people
involved
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
62. Which of the following is not a type of
software maintenance?
a. Corrective Maintenance
b. Adaptive Maintenance
c. Predictive Maintenance
d. Preventive Maintenance
Answer:Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
63. Which type of software maintenance deals
with the repair of defects found in day-to-day
system functions?
a. Corrective Maintenance
b. Adaptive Maintenance
c. Perfective Maintenance
d. Preventive Maintenance
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
64. Which type of software maintenance includes
modifications applied to keep the software
product up-to-date?
a. Corrective Maintenance
b. Adaptive Maintenance
c. Perfective Maintenance
d. Preventive Maintenance
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
65. Which type of software maintenance includes
modifications done in order to keep the
software usable over a long period of time,
e.g. new features, new user requirements for
refining the software and improve its
reliability and performance?
a. Corrective Maintenance
b. Adaptive Maintenance
c. Perfective Maintenance
d. Preventive Maintenance
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
66. Which type of software maintenance includes
modifications to prevent future problems of
software?
a. Corrective Maintenance
b. Adaptive Maintenance
c. Perfective Maintenance
d. Preventive Maintenance
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
67. __________ can extract design information
from source code.
a. Forward engineering
b. Reverse Engineering
c. Reengineering
d. Reverse Engineering and Reengineering
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
68. What is the full form of SCM with reference
to Software Engineering?
a. Supply Chain Management
b. Service Control Manager
c. Software Configuration Management
d. System Control Module
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
69. Which is a software configuration
management concept that helps us to control
change without seriously impeding justifiable
change?
a. Data model
b. Source code
c. Baselines
d. None of the given options
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
70. Software Configuration Management can be
administered in several ways. These include
a. A separate configuration management
team for each project
b. A single software configuration
management team for the whole
organization
c. Software Configuration Management
distributed among the project members
d. All of the given options
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
71. __________ combines procedures and tools to
manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software
process.
a. Change control
b. Version control
c. SCIs
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
72. __________ complements the formal
technical review by assessing a configuration
object for characteristics that are generally not
considered during the review.
a. Software configuration audit
b. Software configuration management
c. Baseline
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
73. __________ is the process of assembling
program components, data, and libraries, and
then compiling and linking these to create an
executable system.
a. System building
b. Release management
c. Change management
d. Version management
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
74. __________ is not a Software Configuration
Management Activity.
a. Configuration item identification
b. Risk management
c. Release management
d. Branch management
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
75. The definition and use of configuration
management standards is essential for quality
certification in
a. ISO 9000
b. CMM
c. CMMI
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
76. _________ involves preparing software for
external release and keeping track of the
system versions that have been released for
customer use.
a. System building
b. Release management
c. Change management
d. Version management
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
77. __________ process ensures that versions of
systems and components are recorded and
maintained.
a. Codeline
b. Configuration control
c. Version
d. Workspace
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
78. Which of the following process is concerned
with analyzing the costs and benefits of
proposed changes?
a. Version management
b. System building
c. Change management
d. Release management
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
79. Which of the following is not a Version
management feature?
a. Build script generation
b. Version and release identification
c. Change history recording
d. Project support
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
80. Which method recommends that very frequent
system builds should be carried out with
automated testing to discover software
problems?
a. Agile method
b. Parallel compilation method
c. Large systems method
d. All of the given options
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
81. _________ is a collection of component
versions that make up a system.
a. Version
b. Codeline
c. Baseline
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
82. Which of the following is a configuration
item?
a. Log information
b. Source code
c. Design & Test specification
d. All of the given options
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
83. A sequence of baselines representing different
versions of a system is known as __________.
a. System building
b. Mainline
c. Software Configuration Item(SCI)
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
84. The statement “The creation of a new
codeline from a version in an existing
codeline” define the term __________.
a. Branching
b. Merging
c. Codeline
d. Mainline
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
85. Effective software project management
focuses on
a. people, performance, payoff, product
b. people, product, performance, process
c. people, product, process, project
d. people, process, payoff, product
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
86. Organizations that achieve high levels of
maturity in people management have a higher
likelihood of implementing effective software
engineering processes
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
87. The first step in project planning is to
a. determine the budget.
b. select a team organizational model.
c. determine the project constraints
d. establish the objectives and scope
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
88. Process framework activities are populated
with
a. milestones
b. work products
c. QA points
d. all of the above
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
89. Project management is less important for
modern software development since most
projects are successful and completed on time
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
90. Which of the following is not considered a
stakeholder in the software process?
a. customers
b. end-users
c. project managers
d. sales people
Answer: Option (d)
91. The best person to hire as a project team
leader is the most competent software
engineering practitioner available
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (b)
92. The best project team organizational model to
use when tackling extremely complex
problems is the
a. closed paradigm
b. open paradigm
c. random paradigm
d. synchronous paradigm
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
93. One of the best ways to avoid frustration
during the software development process is to
a. give team members more control over
process and technical decisions
b. give team members less control over
process and technical decisions.
c. hide bad news from the project team
members until things improve.
d. reward programmers based on their
productivity.
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
94. Small agile teams have no place in modern
software development.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
95. Which of these software characteristics is not
a factor contributing to project coordination
difficulties?
a. interoperability
b. performance
c. scale
d. uncertainty
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
96. Which of these software characteristics are
used to determine the scope of a software
project?
a. context, lines of code, function
b. context, function, communication
requirements
c. information objectives, function,
performance
d. communications requirements,
performance, information objectives
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
97. The major areas of problem decomposition
during the project scoping activity are the
a. customer workflow
b. functionality to be delivered
c. process used to deliver functionality
d. software process model
e. b and c
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
98. Product and process decomposition occurs
simultaneously as the project plan evolves.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
99. When can selected common process
framework activities be omitted during
process decomposition?
a. when the project is extremely small in size
b. any time the software is mission critical
c. rapid prototyping does not require their
use
d. never the activities are invariant
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
100. How does a software project manager need to
act to minimize the risk of software failure?
a. double the project team size
b. request a large budget
c. start on the right foot
d. track progress
e. c and d
Answer: Option (e)
-------------------------------------------
101.The W5HH principle contains which of the
following questions?
a. Why is the system being developed?
b. What will be done by whom?
c. Where are they organizationally located?
d. How much of each resource is required?
e. a, c d
Answer: Option (e)
-------------------------------------------
102.Which of these are critical practices for
performance-based project management?
a. assessing product usability
b. defect tracking against quality targets
c. empirical cost estimation
d. formal risk management
e. b, c, d
Answer: Option (e)
-------------------------------------------
103.A risk referent level is a risk component value
(performance, cost, support, schedule) or
combination of values that cause a project to
be terminated.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
104.An effective risk management plan will need
to address which of the following issues?
a. risk avoidance
b. risk monitoring
c. contingency planning
d. all of the above
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
105.Proactive risk management is sometimes
described as fire fighting
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
106.Software risk always involves two
characteristics
a. fire fighting and crisis management
b. known and unknown risks
c. uncertainty and loss
d. staffing and budget
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
107.Three categories of risks are
a. business risks, personnel risks, budget
risks
b. project risks, technical risks, business
risks
c. planning risks, technical risks, personnel
risks
d. management risks, technical risks, design
risks
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
108.Generic risks require far more attention than
product-specific risks.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
109.A risk item checklist would contain known
and predictable risks from which of these
categories?
a. product size
b. development environment
c. staff size
d. process definition
e. all of the above
Answer: Option (e)
-------------------------------------------
110.Questions that should be asked to assess the
overall project risk include:
a. Have top managers formally committed to
support the project?
b. Are end-users committed to the project
and proposed system being built?
c. Are requirement fully understood by
development team and customers?
d. Does the proposed budget have time
allocated for marketing?
e. a, b, c
Answer: Option (e)
-------------------------------------------
111.Software risk impact assessment should focus
on consequences affecting
a. planning, resources, cost, schedule
b. marketability, cost, personnel
c. business, technology, process
d. performance, support, cost, schedule
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
112.Risk projection attempts to rate each risk in
two ways
a. likelihood and cost
b. likelihood and impact
c. likelihood and consequences
d. likelihood and exposure
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
113.Risk tables are sorted by
a. probability and cost
b. probability and impact
c. probability and consequences
d. probability and exposure
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
114.Individual team members can make their own
estimate for a risk probability and then
develop a consensus value.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
115.Which factors affect the probable
consequences likely if a risk does occur?
a. risk cost
b. risk timing
c. risk scope
d. risk resources
e. b and c
Answer: Option (e)
-------------------------------------------
116.The reason for refining risks is to break them
into smaller units having different
consequences.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
117.Effective risk management plan needs to
address which of these issues?
a. risk avoidance
b. risk monitoring
c. contingency planning
d. all of the above
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
118. Risk monitoring involves watching the risk
indicators defined for the project and not
determining the effectiveness of the risk
mitigation steps themselves.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
119.Hazard analysis focuses on the identification
and assessment of potential hazards that can
cause
a. project termination
b. schedule slippage
c. cost overruns
d. an entire system to fail
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
120.Risk information sheets (RIS) are never an
acceptable substitute for a full risk mitigation,
monitoring, and management (RMMM) plan.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
121.A new __________ is defined when major
changes have been made to one or more
configuration objects.
a. entity
b. item
c. variant
d. version
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
122.WebApp configuration objects can be
managed in much the same way as
conventional software configuration objects
except for:
a. content items
b. functional items
c. graphic items
d. user items
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
123.SCI standards take a formal view and do not
address guidelines for applying change
management in agile environments.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
124.How much effort is typically expended by a
software organization on software
maintenance?
a. 20 percent
b. 40 percent
c. 60 percent
d. 80 percent
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
125. Software supportability is not concerned with
either the provision of hardware or
infrastructure.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
126. Business process reengineering is often
accompanied by software reengineering.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (a)
127.Which of the following is not an example of a
business process?
a. designing a new product
b. hiring an employee
c. purchasing services
d. testing software
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
128.Business process reengineering does not have
a start or end, it is an evolutionary process.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
129.Which of the following activities is not part of
the software reengineering process model?
a. forward engineering
b. inventory analysis
c. prototyping
d. reverse engineering
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
130.Software reengineering process model
includes restructuring activities for which of
the following work items?
a. code
b. documentation
c. data
d. all of the above
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
131.Which of the following is not an issue to
consider when reverse engineering?
a. abstraction level
b. completeness
c. connectivity
d. directionality
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
132. Reverse engineering of data focuses on
a. database structures
b. internal data structures
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
Answer: Option (c)
-------------------------------------------
133.The first reverse engineering activity involves
seeking to understand
a. data
b. processing
c. user interfaces
d. none of the above
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
134.Reverse engineering should proceed the
reengineering of any user interface.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
135.Which of these benefits can be achieved when
software is restructured?
a. higher quality programs
b. reduced maintenance effort
c. software easier to test
d. all of the above
Answer: Option (d)
-------------------------------------------
136.Code restructuring is a good example of
software reengineering
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
137.Which of these is not an example of data
restructuring?
a. data analysis
b. data name rationalization
c. data record standardization
d. none of the above
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
138.Forward engineering is not necessary if an
existing software product is producing the
correct output.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
139.Reengineering client/server systems begins
with a thorough analysis of the business
environment that encompasses the existing
computing system
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
140.The only time reengineering enters into work
with a legacy system is when it components
will be implemented as objects.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (b)
-------------------------------------------
141.The cost benefits derived from reengineering
are realized largely due to decreased
maintenance and support costs for the new
software product.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option (a)
-------------------------------------------
Others Questions
-------------------------------------------
Question 1
Diagrams which are used to distribute files, libraries, and tables across topology of hardware are called
A. deployment diagrams
B. use case diagrams
C. sequence diagrams
D. collaboration diagrams
The correct answer is: A
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 2
A node with indegree=0 and outdegree ≠ 0 is called
(a) Source node (b) Destination node (c) Transfer node (d) None of the above
The correct answer is: A
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 3
Which of the following statements is true?
i. There are 5 views that are represented through the Unified Modelling Language (UML).
ii. These 5 views in UML are represented through 9 UML diagrams.
A. Only i is true
B. Only ii is true
C. Both i and ii are true
D. None of them is true
The correct answer is: C
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 4
Software testing is:
(a) the process of demonstrating that errors are not present
(b) the process of establishing confidence that a program does what it is supposed to do
(c) the process of executing a program to show it is working as per specifications
(d) the process of executing a program with the intent of finding errors
The correct answer is: D
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 5
Arrange the given sequence to form a SRS Prototype outline as per IEEE SRS Standard.
i. General description
ii. Introduction
iii. Index
iv. Appendices
v. Specific Requirements
a) iii, i, ii,v, iv
b) iii, ii, i, v, iv
c) ii, i, v, iv, iii
d) iii, i, ii
The correct answer is: C
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 6
Decision table are useful for describing situations in which:
(a) An action is taken under varying sets of conditions.
(b) Number of combinations of actions is taken under varying sets of conditions
(c) No action is taken under varying sets of conditions
(d) None of the above
The correct answer is: D
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 7
It is the process in which developers discuss with the client and end users and know their expectations from the software.
A. Requirements gathering
B. Organizing Requirements
C. Negotiation & discussion
D. Documentation
The correct answer is: A
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 8
Coupling is a measure of the strength of the interconnections between software modules.
Which of the following are correct statements with respect to module coupling ?
P : Common coupling occurs when one module controls the flow of another module by passing it information on what to do.
Q : In data coupling, the complete data structure is passed from one module to another through parameters.
R : Stamp coupling occurs when modules share a composite data structure and use only parts of it.
Code:
(A) P and Q only
(B) P and R only
(C) Q and R only
(D) All of P, Q and R
The correct answer is: C
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 9
The user system requirements are the parts of which document ?
a) SDD
b) SRS
c) DDD
d) SRD
The correct answer is: B
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 10
The process to gather the software requirements from client, analyze and document them is known as ___________________.
A. Feasibility Study
B. Requirement Gathering
C. Requirement Engineering
D. System Requirements Specification
The correct answer is: C
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 11
Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________
a) Functions
b) Modules
c) Classes
d) Sub procedures
The correct answer is: B
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 12
What is DFD stands for?
A. Data Flowchart Diagram
B. Data Flow Diagram
C. Depict Flow Diagram
D. Data Flow Depicts
The correct answer is: B
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 13
Which of the following is the task of project indicators:
a) help in assessment of status of ongoing project
b) track potential risk
c) help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track potential risk
d) none of the mentioned
The correct answer is: C
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 14
A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the completed software system under development.
Select one:
True
False
The correct answer is 'False'.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 15
Which one is not infrastructure software?
(a) Operating system
(b) Database management system
(c) Compilers
(d) Result management system
The correct answer is: D
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 16
Which one is not a user documentation?
(a) Beginner’s Guide
(b) Installation guide
(c) SRS
(d) System administration
The correct answer is: C
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 17
Data Store Symbol in DFD represents a
A) Physical file
B) Data Structure
C) Logical file
D) All of the mentioned
The correct answer is: D
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 18
Which of the following property does not correspond to a good Software Requirements Specification (SRS) ?
a) Verifiable
b) Ambiguous
c) Complete
d) Traceable
The correct answer is: B
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 19
Legacy systems are
(a) old systems
(b) new systems
(c) undeveloped systems
(d) None of the above
The correct answer is: A
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 20
The lower degree of cohesion is kind of
(A) Logical Cohesion
(B) Coincidental Cohesion
(C) Procedural Cohesion
(D) Communicational Cohesion
The correct answer is: B
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 21
The coupling between different modules of a software is categorized as follows:
I. Content coupling
II. Common coupling
III. Control coupling
IV. Stamp coupling
V. Data coupling
Coupling between modules can be ranked in the order of strongest (least desirable) to weakest (most desirable) as follows:
IV-II-V-III-I
I-III-V -II-IV
I-II-III-IV-V
V-IV-III-II-I
The correct answer is: I-II-III-IV-V
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 22
Software mistakes during coding are known as:
(a) failures
(b) defects
(c) bugs
(d) errors
The correct answer is: C
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 23
Cyclomatic complexity is denoted by
(a) V(G)=e-n+2P
(b) V(G)= _ +1
(c) V(G)=Number of regions of the graph
(d) All of the above
The correct answer is: D
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 24
What is the Interaction diagram?
A) Interaction diagrams are the UML notations for dynamic modeling of collaborations
B) Interaction diagrams are a central focus of engineering design
C) All of the mentioned
D) None of the mentioned
The correct answer is: C
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 25
In COCOMO model, if project size is typically 2-50 KLOC, then which mode is to be selected?
(a) Organic
(b) Semidetached
(c) Embedded
(d) None of the above
The correct answer is: A
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 26
Efficiency in a software product does not include ________
A. licensing
B. processing time
C. responsiveness
D. memory utilization
The correct answer is: A
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 27
Test suite is
(a) Set of test cases
(b) Set of inputs
(c) Set of outputs
(d) None of the above
The correct answer is: A
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 28
On what basis is plan-driven development different from that of the software development process?
A. Based on the iterations that occurred within the activities.
B. Based on the output, which is derived after negotiating in the software development process.
C. Based on the interleaved specification, design, testing, and implementation activities.
D. All of the above
The correct answer is: A
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 29
How many stages are in COCOMO-II?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
The correct answer is: B
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 30
For a function of n variables, boundary value analysis yields:
(a) 4n+3 test cases
(b) 4n+1 test cases
(c) n+4 test cases
(d) None of the above
The correct answer is: B
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 31
Which of the following is not included in SRS ?
(a) Performance
(b) Functionality
(c) Design solutions
(d) External Interfaces
The correct answer is: C
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 32
Which of the following statements about SRS is/are true ?
i. SRS is written by customer
ii. SRS is written by a developer
iii. SRS serves as a contract between customer and developer
(a) Only i is true
(b) None of the mentioned
(c) Both ii and iii are true
(d) All are true
The correct answer is: D
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 33
Which of the following activities of the generic process framework delivers a feedback report?
A. Deployment
B. Planning
C. Modelling
D. Construction
The correct answer is: A
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 34
Integration testing techniques are
(a) Top down
(b) Bottom up
(c) Sandwich
(d) All of the above
The correct answer is: D
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 35
A Design concept Refinement is a
(A) Top-down approach
(B) Complementary of Abstraction concept
(C) Process of elaboration
(D) All of the above
The correct answer is: D
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 36
Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of ___________ LOC (Line of Code).
A. 100-200
B. 300-400
C. 600-700
D. Above 800+
The correct answer is: A
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 37
The maintenance initiated by defects in the software is called
(a) Corrective maintenance
(b) Adaptive maintenance
(c) Perfective maintenance
(d) Preventive maintenance
The correct answer is: A
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 38
User documentation consists of
(a) System overview
(b) Installation guide
(c) Reference guide
(d) All of the above
The correct answer is: A
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 39
Which of the following model will be preferred by a company that is planning to deploy an advanced version of the existing software in the market?
A. Spiral
B. Iterative Enhancement
C. RAD
D. Both (b) and (c)
The correct answer is: D
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 40
Which of the following is correct software metrics?
A. Complexity Metrics
B. Quality Metrics
C. Process Metrics
D. All of the above
The correct answer is: D
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
UNIT-1
1. Software is considered to be collection of ____________.
A. programming code
B. associated libraries
C. documentations
D. All of the above
Ans: D
2. The process of developing a software product using software engineering principles and methods is referred to as____________.
A. Software Engineering
B. software Evolution
C. System Models
D. Software Models
Ans: A
3. Where there is a need of Software Engineering?
A. For Large Software
B. To reduce Cost
C. Software Quality Management
D. All of the above
Ans: D
4. The reason for software bugs and failures is due to____________.
A. Software Developers
B. Software companies
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Ans: C
5. Efficiency in a software product does not include ________
A. licensing
B. processing time
C. responsiveness
D. memory utilization
Ans: A
6. What are attributes of good software?
A. Software functionality
B. Software development
C. Software maintainability
D. Both A and C
Ans: D
7. Which of the following is the Characteristics of good software?
A. Transitional
B. Operational
C. Maintenance
D. All of the above
Ans: D
8. Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of ___________ LOC (Line of Code).
A. 100-200
B. 300-400
C. 600-700
D. Above 800+
Ans: A
9. What is the major drawback of using RAD Model?
A. Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required
B. Increases reusability of components
C. Encourages customer/client feedback
D. Increases reusability of components, highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required
Ans: D
10. Which of the following is the first step in SDLC framework?
A. Feasibility Study
B. Requirement Gathering
C. Communication
D. System Analysis
Ans: C
11. Which of the following does not relate to Evolutionary Process Model?
A. Incremental Model
B. Concurrent Development Model
C. WINWIN Spiral Model
D. All of the above
Ans :D
12. What is the major drawback of the Spiral Model?
A. Higher amount of risk analysis
B. Doesn't work well for smaller projects
C. Additional functionalities are added later on
D. Strong approval and documentation control
Ans: B
13. Model selection is based on __________.
A. Requirements
B. Development team & users
C. Project type & associated risk
D. All of the above
Ans: D
14. Which of the following option is correct?
A. The prototyping model facilitates the reusability of components.
B. RAD Model facilitates reusability of components
C. Both RAD & Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of components
D. None
Ans: C
15. Which of the following models doesn't necessitate defining requirements at the earliest in the lifecycle?
A. RAD & Waterfall
B. Prototyping & Waterfall
C. Spiral & Prototyping
D. Spiral & RAD
Ans: C
16. When the user participation isn't involved, which of the following models will not result in the desired output?
A. Prototyping & Waterfall
B. Prototyping & RAD
C. Prototyping & Spiral
D. RAD & Spiral
Ans: B
17. Which of the following model will be preferred by a company that is planning to deploy an advanced version of the existing software in the market?
A. Spiral
B. Iterative Enhancement
C. RAD
D. Both (b) and (c)
Ans: D
18. Which of the following falls under the category of software products?
A. Firmware, CAD
B. Embedded, CAM
C. Customized, Generic
D. CAD, Embedded
Ans: C
19. Which of the following activities of the generic process framework delivers a feedback report?
A. Deployment
B. Planning
C. Modelling
D. Construction
Ans: A
20. The agile software development model is built based on __________.
A. Linear Development
B. Incremental Development
C. Iterative Development
D. Both Incremental and Iterative Development
Ans: D
21. On what basis is plan-driven development different from that of the software development process?
A. Based on the iterations that occurred within the activities.
B. Based on the output, which is derived after negotiating in the software development process.
C. Based on the interleaved specification, design, testing, and implementation activities.
D. All of the above
Ans: A
22. Software maintenance costs are expensive in contrast to software development.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
23. The spiral model has two dimensions namely _____________ and ____________
A. Diagonal, angular
B. Radial, perpendicular
C. Radial, angular
D. Diagonal, perpendicular
Ans: C
24. Which of these does not account for software failure?
A. Increasing Demand
B. Low expectation
C. Increasing Supply
D. Less reliable and expensive
Ans: C
25. Which of these software engineering activities are not a part of software processes?
A. Software Dependence
B. Software Development
C. Software validation
D. Software specification
Ans: A
UNIT-2
1. Select the developer-specific requirement?
a) Portability
b) Maintainability
c) Availability
d) Both Portability and Maintainability
Ans: D
2. Which one of the following is NOT desired in a good Software Requirement Specifications (SRS) document?
a) Functional Requirements
b) Non-Functional Requirements
c) Goals of implementation
d) Algorithms for software implementation
Ans: D
3. What is the appropriate pairing of items in the two columns listing various activities encountered in a software life cycle?
P. Requirements Capture 1. Module Development and Integration
Q. Design 2. Domain Analysis
R. Implementation 3. Structural and Behavioural Modelling
S. Maintenance 4. Performance Tuning
a) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
b) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
c) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
d) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
Ans: B
4. Which of the following statements are TRUE?
• I. The context diagram should depict the system as a single bubble.
• II. External entities should be identified clearly at all levels of DFDs.
• III. Control information should not be represented in a DFD.
• IV. A data store can be connected wither to another data store or to an external entity.
a)II and III
b) II and III
c) I and III
d) I, II and III
Ans: C
5. Which of the following UML 2.0 diagrams capture behavioural aspects of a system?
(A) Use Case Diagram, Object Diagram, Activity Diagram, and State Machine Diagram
(B) Use Case Diagram, Activity Diagram, and State Machine Diagram
(C) Object Diagram, Communication Diagram, Timing Diagram, and Interaction diagram
(D) Object Diagram, Composite Structure Diagram, Package Diagram, and Deployment Diagram
Ans: B
6. What does the data dictionary identify?
(A) Field names
(B) Field formats
(C) Field Types
(D) All of these
Ans: D
7. Which of the following is not one of three software product aspects addressed by McCall’s software quality factors?
(A) Ability to undergo change
(B) Adaptability to new environments
(C) Operational characteristics
(D) Production costs and scheduling
Ans: D
8. The extent to which the s/w can continue to operate correctly despite the introduction of invalid inputs is called as
(A) Reliability
(B) Robustness
(C) Fault tolerance
(D) Portability
Ans: B
9. The ISO quality assurance standard that applies to software Engineering is
(A) ISO 9000: 2004
(B) ISO 9001: 2000
(C) ISO 9002 : 2001
(D) ISO 9003 : 2004
Ans: B
10. Which of the following are external qualities of a software product?
(A) Maintainability, reusability, portability, efficiency, correctness.
(B) Correctness, reliability, robustness, efficiency, usability.
(C) Portability, interoperability, maintainability, reusability.
(D) Robustness, efficiency, reliability, maintainability, reusability.
Ans: B
11. Which one of the following non-functional quality attributes is not highly affected by the architecture of the software?
(A) Performance
(B) Reliability
(C) Usability
(D) Portability
Ans: C
12. A context model of a software system can be shown by drawing a
(A) LEVEL-0 DFD
(B) LEVEL-1 DFD
(C) LEVEL-2 DFD
(D) LEVEL-3 DFD
Ans: A
13.
The above figure represents which one of the following UML diagram for a single send session of an online chat system?
(A) Package diagram
(B) Activity diagram
(C) Class diagram
(D) Sequence diagram
Ans: B
14. Which one of the following statements, related to the requirements phase in Software Engineering, is incorrect?
(A) “Requirement validation” is one of the activities in the requirements phase.
(B) “Prototyping” is one of the methods for requirement analysis.
(C) “Modelling-oriented approach” is one of the methods for specifying the functional specifications
(D) “Function points” is one of the most commonly used size metric for requirements.
Ans: C
15. Activities which ensure that the software that has been built, is traceable to customer requirement is covered as part of
(A) Verification
(B) Validation
(C) Maintenance
(D) Modeling
Ans: B
16. Verification:
(A) refers to the set of activities that ensure that software correctly implements a specific function
(B) gives answer to the question – Are we building the product right?
(C) requires execution of software
(D) both (A) and (B)
Ans: D
17. Requirements prioritisation and negotiation belongs to:
(A) Requirements validation
(B) Requirements elicitation
(C) Feasibility study
(D) Requirements reviews
Ans: B
18. Which of the following is not a UML DIAGRAM?
(A) Use Case
(B) Class Diagram
(C) Analysis Diagram
(D) Swimlane Diagram
Ans: C
19. Which of the following is not an approach to Software Process Assessment?
(A) SPICE(ISO/IEC15504)
(B) Standard CMMI Assessment Method for process improvement
(C) ISO 9001:2000
(D) IEEE 2000:2001
Ans: D
20. A physical DFD specifies
(A) what processes will be used
(B) who generates data and who processes it
(C) what each person in an organization does
(D) which data will be generated
Ans: B
21. In UML diagram of a class
(A) state of object cannot be represented
(B) state is irrelevant
(C) state is represented as an attribute
(D) state is represented as a result of an operation
Ans: C
22. Requirement Development, Organizational Process Focus, Organizational Training, Risk Management and Integrated Supplier Management are process areas required to achieve maturity level
(A) Performed
(B) Managed
(C) Defined
(D) Optimized
Ans: C
23. The software _________ of a program or a computing system is the structure or structures of the system, which comprise software components, the externally visible properties of those components, and the relationships among them.
(A) Design
(B) Architecture
(C) Process
(D) Requirement
Ans: B
24. Who controls the FAST (Facilitated Application Specification Techniques) meeting ?
a)System Analyst
b) Scribe
c) Facilitator
d) Manager
Ans: B
25. _________ and _________ are the two issues of Requirement Analysis.
a) Performance, Design
b) Stakeholder, Developer
c) Functional, Non-Functional
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: B
UNIT-3
1. The coupling between different modules of a software is categorized as follows:
I. Content coupling
II. Common coupling
III. Control coupling
IV. Stamp coupling
V. Data coupling
Coupling between modules can be ranked in the order of strongest (least desirable) to weakest (most desirable) as follows:
(A) I-II-III-IV-V
(B) V-IV-III-II-I
(C) I-III-V -II-IV
(D) IV-II-V-III-I
Ans: A
2. In the context of modular software design, which one of the following combinations is desirable?
(A) High cohesion and high coupling
(B) High cohesion and low coupling
(C) Low cohesion and high coupling
(D) Low cohesion and low coupling
Ans: B
3. Consider a software project with the following information domain characteristic for calculation of function point metric.
Number of external inputs (I) = 30
Number of external output (O) = 60
Number of external inquiries (E) = 23
Number of files (F) = 08
Number of external interfaces (N) = 02
It is given that the complexity weighting factors for I, O, E, F and N are 4, 5, 4, 10 and 7, respectively. It is also given that, out of fourteen value adjustment factors that influence the development effort, four factors are not applicable, each of he other four factors have value 3, and each of the remaining factors have value 4. The computed value of function point metric is ____________
(A) 612.06
(B) 212.05
(C) 305.09
(D) 806.9
Ans: A
4. Which product metric gives the measure of the average length of words and sentence in documents?
(A) SCI number
(B) Cyclomatic complexity
(C) LOC
(D) Fog index
Answer: (D)
5. A software design pattern used to enhance the functionality of an object at run-time is:
(A) Adapter
(B) Decorator
(C) Delegation
(D) Proxy
Answer: (B)
6. Which of the following types of coupling has the weakest coupling?
(A) Pathological coupling
(B) Control coupling
(C) Data coupling
(D) Message coupling
Answer: (C)
7. Cohesion is an extension of:
(A) Abstraction concept
(B) Refinment concept
(C) Information hiding concept
(D) Modularity
Answer: (C)
8. A Design concept Refinement is a
(A) Top-down approach
(B) Complementary of Abstraction concept
(C) Process of elaboration
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
9. A software design is highly modular if:
(A) cohesion is functional and coupling is data type.
(B) cohesion is coincidental and coupling is data type.
(C) cohesion is sequential and coupling is content type.
(D) cohesion is functional and coupling is stamp type.
Answer: (A)
10. Which one of the following set of attributes should not be encompassed by effective software metrics ?
(A) Simple and computable
(B) Consistent and objective
(C) Consistent in the use of units and dimensions
(D) Programming language dependent
Answer: (D)
11. The Functions Point (FP) metric is
(A) Calculated from user requirement
(B) Calculated from lines of code
(C) Calculated from software complexity assessment
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
12. The lower degree of cohesion is kind of
(A) Logical Cohesion
(B) Coincidental Cohesion
(C) Procedural Cohesion
(D) Communicational Cohesion
Answer: (B)
13. Coupling is a measure of the strength of the interconnections between software modules.
Which of the following are correct statements with respect to module coupling ?
P : Common coupling occurs when one module controls the flow of another module by passing it information on what to do.
Q : In data coupling, the complete data structure is passed from one module to another through parameters.
R : Stamp coupling occurs when modules share a composite data structure and use only parts of it.
Code:
(A) P and Q only
(B) P and R only
(C) Q and R only
(D) All of P, Q and R
Answer: (C)
14. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?
a) Architecture
b) Data
c) Interface
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: D
15. The intent of project metrics is:
a) minimization of development schedule
b) for strategic purposes
c) assessing project quality on ongoing basis
d) minimization of development schedule and assessing project quality on ongoing basis
Ans: D
16. In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the ___________________
a) number of Functions
b) number of user inputs
c) number of lines of code
d) amount of memory usage
Ans: C
17. Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining function point in FPA ?
a) Number of user Input
b) Number of user Inquiries
c) Number of external Interfaces
d) Number of errors
Ans: D
18. Activity diagrams are used to model the processing of data.
a) True
b) False
Ans: A
19. Percentage of modules that were inspected is a part of
a) Product Metrics
b) Process Metrics
c) Project Metrics
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: B
20. Which of the property of software modularity is incorrect with respect to benefits software modularity?
a) Modules are robust
b) Module can use other modules
c) Modules Can be separately compiled and stored in a library
d) Modules are mostly dependent
Ans: D
21. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________
a) Functions
b) Modules
c) Classes
d) Sub procedures
Ans: B
22. Which of the following is the task of project indicators:
a) help in assessment of status of ongoing project
b) track potential risk
c) help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track potential risk
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: C
23. Defects removal efficiency (DRE)depends on:
a) E – errors found before software delivery
b) D – defects found after delivery to user
c) Both E and D
d) Varies with project
Ans:C
24. A DFD is always accompanied by a data dictionary.
a) True
b) False
Ans: A
25. Data Store Symbol in DFD represents a
a) Physical file
b) Data Structure
c) Logical file
d) All of the mentioned
Ans:D
UNIT-4
1) Software testing is:
(a) the process of demonstrating that errors are not present
(b) the process of establishing confidence that a program does what it is supposed
to do
(c) the process of executing a program to show it is working as per specifications
(d) the process of executing a program with the intent of finding errors
Answer: (d) the process of executing a program with the intent of finding errors
2) Software mistakes during coding are known as:
(a) failures (b) defects
(c) bugs (d) errors
Answer: (c) bugs
3) Functional testing is known as:
(a) Structural testing (b) Behavior testing
(c) Regression testing (d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Black Box testing is also known as Behavior Testing
4) For a function of n variables, boundary value analysis yields:
(a) 4n+3 test cases (b) 4n+1 test cases
(c) n+4 test cases (d) None of the above
Answer: b
5) For a function of two variables, how many cases will be generated by robustness testing?
(a) 9 (b) 13 (c) 25 (d) 42
Answer: b
6) For a function of n variables robustness testing of boundary value analysis yields:
(a) 4n+1 (b) 4n+3 (c) 6n+1 (d) None of the above
Answer: c
7) A node with indegree=0 and outdegree ≠ 0 is called
(a) Source node (b) Destination node (c) Transfer node (d) None of the above
Answer: a
8)A node with indegree ≠ 0 and out degree=0 is called
(a) Source node (b) Predicate node (c) Destination node (d) None of the above
Answer: c
146 ) A decision table has
(a) Four portions (b) Three portions (c) Five portions (d) Two portions
Answer: a
9 ) Beta testing is carried out by
(a) Users (b) Developers (c) Testers (d) All of the above
Answer: a
10) Equivalence class partitioning is related to
(a) Structural testing (b) Black box testing (c) Mutation testing (d) All of the above
Answer: b
11) Cause effect graphing techniques is one form of
(a) Maintenance testing (b) Structural testing
(c) Function testing (d) Regression testing
Answer: c
12) During validation
(a) Process is checked (b) Product is checked
(c) Developer’s performance is evaluated (d) The customer checks the product
Answer: d
13) Verification is
(a) Checking the product with respect to customer’s expectation
(b) Checking the product with respect to specification
(c) Checking the product with respect to the constraints of the project
(d) All of the above
Answer: b
14) Validation is
(a) Checking the product with respect to customer’s expectation
(b) Checking the product with respect to specifications
(c) Checking the product with respect to the constraints of the project
(d) All of the above
Answer: a
15) Alpha testing is done by
(a) Customer (b) Tester (c) Developer (d) All of the above
Answer: a
16) Site for Alpha testing is
(a) Software company (b) Installation place
(c) Anywhere (d) None of the above
Answer: a
17 ) Site for Beta testing is
(a) Software company (b) User’s site (c) Anywhere (d) All of the above
Answer: b
18) Acceptance testing is done by
(a) Developers (b) Customers (c) Testers (d) All of the above
Answer: b
19) One fault may lead to
(a) One failure (b) No failure (c) Many failure (d) All of the above
Answer: d
20) Test suite is
(a) Set of test cases (b) Set of inputs (c) Set of outputs (d) None of the above
Answer: a
21) Behavioral specification is required for:
(a) Modeling (b) Verification (c) Validation (d) None of the above
Answer: b
22) During the development phase, the following testing approach is not adopted
(a) Unit testing (b) Bottom up testing (c) Integration testing (d) Acceptance testing
Answer: d
23) Which is not a functional testing technique?
(a) Boundary value analysis (b) Decision table (c) Regression testing (d) None of the above
Answer: c
24) Decision table are useful for describing situations in which:
(a) An action is taken under varying sets of conditions.
(b) Number of combinations of actions is taken under varying sets of conditions
(c) No action is taken under varying sets of conditions
(d) None of the above
Answer: d
25) One weakness of boundary value analysis and equivalence partitioning is
(a) They are not effective
(b) They do not explore combinations of input circumstances
(c) They explore combinations of input circumstances
(d) None of the above
Answer: b
26) In cause effect graphing technique, cause & effect are related to
(a) Input and output (b) Output and input (c) Destination and source (d) None of the above
Answer: a
27) DD path graph is called as
(a) Design to Design Path graph (b) Defect to Defect Path graph
(c) Destination to Destination Path graph (d) Decision to decision Path graph
Answer: d
28) Cyclomatic complexity is developed by
(a) B.W.Boehm (b) T.J.McCabe (c) B.W.Lettlewood (d) Victor Basili
Answer: d
29) An independent path is
(a) Any path through the DD path graph that introduce at least one new set of processing statements or new conditions
(b) Any path through the DD path graph that introduce at most one new set of processing statements or new conditions
(c) Any path through the DD path graph that introduce at one and only one new set of processing statements or new conditions
(d) None of the above
Answer: a
30) Cyclomatic complexity is denoted by
(a) V(G)=e-n+2P (b) V(G)= _ +1
(c) V(G)=Number of regions of the graph (d) All of the above
Answer: d
31) The equation V(G)= ∏ +1 of cyclomatic complexity is applicable only if every predicate node has
(a) two outgoing edges (b) three or more outgoing edges
(c) no outgoing edges (d) none of the above
Answer: a
32 )The size of the graph matrix is
(a) Number of edges in the flow graph (b) Number of nodes in the flow graph
(c) Number of paths in the flow graph (d) Number of independent paths in the flow graph
Answer: b
33) Every node is represented by
(a) One row and one column in graph matrix
(b) Two rows and two columns in graph matrix
(c) One row and two columns in graph matrix
(d) None of the above
Answer: a
34) Cyclomatic complexity is equal to
(a) Number of independent paths (b) Number of paths
(c) Number of edges (d) None of the above
Answer: a
35) Data flow testing is related to
(a) Data flow diagrams (b) E-R diagrams
(c) Data dictionaries (d) none of the above
Answer: d
36) In data flow testing, objective is to find
(a) All dc-paths that are not du-paths (b) All du-paths
(c) All du-paths that are not dc-paths (d) All dc-paths
Answer: c
37) Mutation testing is related to
(a) Fault seeding (b) Functional testing (c) Fault checking (d) None of the above
Answer: a
38) The overhead code required to be written for unit testing is called
(a) Drivers (b) Stubs (c) Scaffolding (d) None of the above
Answer: c
39) Which is not a debugging technique
(a) Core dumps (b) Traces (c) Print statements (d) Regression testing
Answer: d
40) A break in the working of a system is called
(a) Defect (b) Failure (c) Fault (d) Error
Answer: b
41) Alpha and Beta testing techniques are related to
(a) System testing (b) Unit testing (c) Acceptance testing (d) Integration testing
Answer: c
42) Which one is not the verification activity
(a) Reviews (b) Path testing (c) Walkthrough (d) Acceptance testing
Answer: d
43) Testing the software is basically
(a) Verification (b) Validation (c) Verification and validation (d) None of the above
Answer: c
44) Integration testing techniques are
(a) Top down (b) Bottom up (c) Sandwich (d) All of the above
Answer: d
45) Functionality of software is tested by
(a) White box testing (b) Black box testing (c) Regression testing (d) None of the above
Answer: b
46)Top down approach is used for
(a) Development (b) Identification of faults (c) Validation (d) Functional testing
Answer: b
47) Thread testing is used for testing
(a) Real time systems (b) Object oriented systems (c) Event driven systems (d) All of the above
Answer: b
48) Testing of software with actual data and in the actual environment is called
(a) Alpha testing (b) Beta testing (c) Regression testing (d) None of the above
Answer: b
UNIT-5
1) Process of generating analysis and design documents is called
(a) Inverse Engineering (b) Software Engineering
(c) Reverse Engineering (d) Re-engineering
Answer: c
2) Regression testing is primarily related to
(a) Functional testing (b) Data flow testing
(c) Development testing (d) Maintenance testing
Answer: (d) Maintenance testing
3) The maintenance initiated by defects in the software is called
(a) Corrective maintenance (b) Adaptive maintenance
(c) Perfective maintenance (d) Preventive maintenance
4) Patch is known as
(a) Emergency fixes (b) Routine fixes
(c) Critical fixes (d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Emergency fixes
5) In Boehm model, ACT stands for
(a) Actual change time (b) Actual change traffic
(c) Annual change traffic (d) Annual change time
Answer: (c) Annual change traffic
6) The purpose of regression testing is to
(a) increase confidence in the correctness of the modified program
(b) locate errors in the modified program
(c) preserve the quantity and reliability of software
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
7) Legacy systems are
(a) old systems (b) new systems
(c) undeveloped systems (d) None of the above
Answer: (a) old systems
8) User documentation consists of
(a) System overview (b) Installation guide
(c) Reference guide (d) All of the above
Answer: (a) System overview
9) Which one is not a user documentation?
(a) Beginner’s Guide (b) Installation guide
(c) SRS (d) System administration
Answer: (c) SRS
10) The process by which existing processes and methods are replaced by new
techniques is:
(a) Reverse engineering (b) Business process re-engineering
(c) Software configuration management (d) Technical feasibility
11) The process of transforming a model into source code is
(a) Reverse Engineering (b) Forward engineering
(c) Re-engineering (d) Restructuring
Answer: (b) Forward engineering
12) COCOMO was developed initially by
(a) B.W.Bohem (b) Gregg Rothermal (c) B.Beizer (d) Rajiv Gupta
Ans. a
13) A COCOMO model is
(a) Common Cost estimation model (b) Constructive cost Estimation model
(c) Complete cost estimation model (d) Comprehensive Cost estimation model
Ans. b
14) Estimation of software development effort for organic software is COCOMO is
(a) E=2.4(KLOC)1.05PM (b) E=3.4(KLOC)1.06PM
(c) E=2.0(KLOC)1.05PM (d) E-2.4(KLOC)1.07PM
Ans. a
15) Estimation of size for a project is dependent on
(a) Cost (b) Schedule (c) Time (d) None of the above
Ans. d
16) In function point analysis, number of Complexity adjustment factor is
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 14 (d) 12
Ans. c
17) COCOMO-II estimation model is based on
(a) Complex approach (b) Algorithm approach
(c) Bottom up approach (d) Top down approach
Ans. b
18) Cost estimation for a project may include
(a) Software Cost (b) Hardware Cost (c) Personnel Costs (d) All of the above
Ans. d
19) In COCOMO model, if project size is typically 2-50 KLOC, then which mode is to be selected?
(a) Organic (b) Semidetached (c) Embedded (d) None of the above
Ans. a
20) COCOMO-II was developed at
(a) University of Maryland (b) University of Southern California
(c) IBM (d) AT & T Bell labs
Ans. b
21) Which one is not a Category of COCOMO-II?
(a) End User Programming (b) Infrastructure Sector
(c) Requirement Sector (d) System Integration
Ans. c
22) Which one is not infrastructure software?
(a) Operating system (b) Database management system
(c) Compilers (d) Result management system
Ans. d
23) How many stages are in COCOMO-II?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
Ans. b
24) Which one is not a stage of COCOMO-II?
(a) Application Composition estimation model (b) Early design estimation model
(c) Post architecture estimation model (d) Comprehensive cost estimation model
Ans. d
25) The process of generating analysis and design documents is known as
(a) Software engineering (b) Software re-engineering
(c) Reverse engineering (d) Re-engineering
Ans. c
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